Nursing Elites

1. Which direction given to the nursing assistant is most likely to accomplish the task of getting a urine specimen delivered to the lab immediately after collection?

• A. "Make it a stat delivery."?
• B. "Please do it as soon as you can after break."?
• C. "This client is delirious, and we're worried about urinary sepsis."?
• D. "Take this client to the bathroom now and collect a urine specimen from this voiding. Take the specimen to the lab immediately."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Effective delegation depends on clear, concise direction that leaves no room for question or interpretation on the part of the one being delegated to. In this scenario, the most appropriate direction is to ensure the urine specimen is collected promptly and delivered to the lab immediately. Choice A is too vague and does not specify the urgency required. Choice B does not emphasize the immediate need for the specimen to be delivered. Choice C introduces unnecessary medical information that is beyond the scope of a nursing assistant and may cause confusion. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer as it provides clear instructions for immediate action without room for misunderstanding.

2. The LPN is checking for residual before administering enteral feeding through a PEG tube. Which of these steps is incorrect?

• A. The LPN elevates the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees.
• B. If the residual is greater than 200mL, the LPN should not administer the enteral feeding.
• C. The LPN should discard the residual before administering the tube feeding.
• D. The residual pH level is tested to ensure appropriate placement.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The incorrect step is choice C. The residual should be discarded before administering the tube feeding. Discarding the residual is essential to prevent contamination and ensure accurate measurement of the enteral feeding. Elevating the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees (choice A) is correct as it helps prevent aspiration during feeding. Testing the pH level of the residual (choice D) ensures proper placement of the tube. Withholding feeding if the residual is greater than 200mL (choice B) is crucial to prevent overfeeding, making this statement correct.

3. When are pressure ulcers most likely to occur?

• A. when clients are left in one position in bed for extended periods of time.
• B. when clients are underweight.
• C. when clients are overweight.
• D. only in underweight and overweight clients.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pressure ulcers usually occur over bony prominences and are caused by decreased circulation. The client who is left in one position in bed for extended periods of time is more prone to decreased circulation to an area of the body and to acquiring a pressure ulcer. Choices B and C are incorrect as pressure ulcers are not exclusive to underweight or overweight clients. The key factor is prolonged pressure on the skin, not the weight of the client. Therefore, the correct answer is that pressure ulcers are most likely to occur when clients are immobilized in one position for extended periods of time.

4. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?

• A. cup the hands
• B. use the side of the hands
• C. flatten the hands
• D. spread the fingers of both hands

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.

5. The client is being taught about the use of Rifampin for prophylaxis following exposure to meningitis. What change in bodily functions should the client be informed about?

• A. The client's urine may turn blue.
• B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
• C. The client's contact lenses may be stained orange.
• D. The client's skin may take on a crimson glow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained. Clients should be taught about these side effects to avoid unnecessary concern. Option A is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the urine to turn blue. Option B is incorrect as the client is not infectious to others due to taking Rifampin for prophylaxis. Option D is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the skin to take on a crimson glow.

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