Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

2. When evaluating a kinetic family drawing, which of the following nursing actions is most effective?

• A. instructing the child to draw their family doing something
• B. suggesting specific elements to include in the drawing
• C. discouraging the child from discussing the drawing
• D. noting the omission of any family members

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When evaluating a kinetic family drawing, the most effective nursing action is noting the omission of any family members. This approach helps healthcare providers gather crucial information about family dynamics. It is important to pay attention to what the child includes and omits in the drawing, as it can provide insights into underlying emotions and concerns. Choices A, B, and C are not recommended actions for evaluating the drawing. Instructing the child to draw their family doing something or suggesting specific elements to include may bias the drawing, leading to misinterpretations. Discouraging the child from discussing the drawing can impede communication and the understanding of the child's perspective.

3. A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?

• A. Continuing to check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes
• B. Notifying the registered nurse immediately
• C. Checking the client's uterine fundus
• D. Documenting the vital signs in the client's medical record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.

4. The client provides information to a pregnant client who is experiencing nausea and vomiting about measures to relieve the discomfort. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further information?

• A. ''I should eat five or six small meals a day rather than three full meals.''
• B. ''I need to be sure not to drink liquids with my meals.''
• C. ''I should keep dry crackers at my bedside and eat them before I get out of bed in the morning.''
• D. ''I need to avoid eating fried or greasy foods.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To alleviate nausea and vomiting, the client should avoid drinking liquids with meals. The client should keep dry crackers at her bedside, avoid fried foods, and eat smaller meals. Additionally, the client should eat dry crackers every 2 hours to prevent an empty stomach and avoid spicy foods and foods with strong odors, such as onion and cabbage. The incorrect choices are: A) Eating five or six small meals a day instead of three full meals is a correct recommendation. C) Keeping dry crackers at her bedside and eating them before getting out of bed in the morning is a helpful suggestion. D) Avoiding fried or greasy foods is a valid advice to alleviate nausea and vomiting.

5. Assisting with data collection, a nurse notes tenderness while lightly palpating a client's right lower quadrant of the abdomen. The nurse determines that this finding is most likely associated with which anatomic structure?

• A. Liver
• B. Spleen
• C. Pancreas
• D. Appendix

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the Appendix. Tenderness in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen is a classic sign of appendicitis, which is inflammation of the appendix. The appendix is located in the right lower quadrant. The other choices are incorrect. The spleen is located on the posterolateral wall of the abdominal cavity under the diaphragm. The pancreas is located behind the stomach. The liver fills most of the right upper quadrant and extends to the left midclavicular line.

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