NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?
- A. Clozapine
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Ondansetron
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: Haloperidol
Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.
2. When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, what should be instructed?
- A. switch to a stronger dose of the same medication.
- B. discontinue the medication for a few weeks.
- C. continue taking the same medication, but use it more frequently.
- D. use a combination of medications for better relief.
Correct answer: discontinue the medication for a few weeks.
Rationale: When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, it is crucial to discontinue the medication for a few weeks. Prolonged use of decongestant drops can lead to rebound congestion, which is relieved by stopping the medication for a period of time. Nasal congestion occurs due to various factors like infection, inflammation, or allergy, leading to swelling of the nasal cavity. Nasal decongestants work by stimulating alpha-adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction and shrinking of nasal mucous membranes. However, prolonged use can result in vasodilation, worsening nasal congestion. Switching to a stronger dose of the same medication is not recommended as it can exacerbate the issue. Continuing the same medication more frequently or using a combination of medications are also not advised and may lead to side effects. Educating individuals on proper decongestant use and potential risks of prolonged usage is essential, especially for those with specific health conditions.
3. A client with dysphagia is ready to eat lunch. Which of these foods on the tray would be best to start with when assisting the client?
- A. diced fruit
- B. apple juice with a liquid thickener
- C. Jell-O™
- D. toast
Correct answer: apple juice with a liquid thickener
Rationale: The correct choice is apple juice with a liquid thickener. A client with dysphagia is at risk for aspiration, so it is crucial to start with liquids and assess the client's ability to swallow before introducing solid foods. Using a liquid thickener with apple juice allows the healthcare provider to evaluate swallowing function. Jell-O™, although it melts into a clear liquid, should be avoided initially as it may not provide a clear assessment of swallowing ability. Diced fruit and toast are solid foods that should be introduced only after the client's swallowing ability with liquids has been assessed.
4. A nurse is reading the report from the registered nurse for an initial home visit to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The client was recently discharged from the hospital. Which type of database does the nurse read that contains this information from the client?
- A. Episodic
- B. Follow-up
- C. Emergency
- D. Complete
Correct answer: Complete
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Complete.' A complete database includes a full health history and physical examination, providing a comprehensive overview of the client's current and past health status. This type of database establishes a baseline for future assessments, making it essential for the nurse's initial home visit to understand the client's health needs thoroughly post-hospital discharge. It is typically gathered in primary care settings like clinics, private practices, college health services, women's health care agencies, visiting nurse agencies, or community health agencies. An episodic database focuses on a specific short-term issue or body system, which is not comprehensive enough for the initial home visit after hospital discharge. A follow-up database is used to monitor a known problem at regular intervals, not suitable for an initial assessment. An emergency database is swiftly collected during urgent situations, often while lifesaving measures are being carried out, and is not relevant for a post-hospital discharge home visit.
5. Which of the following enzymes is indicative of pancreatitis?
- A. alkaline phosphatase
- B. acid phosphatase
- C. creatine phosphokinase
- D. amylase
Correct answer: D: amylase
Rationale: Amylase is elevated in conditions of pancreatic inflammation, such as pancreatitis. Pancreatitis is characterized by the inflammation of the pancreas, leading to the leakage of amylase into the bloodstream. Elevated levels of amylase are a key diagnostic marker for pancreatitis. Alkaline phosphatase is associated with liver and bone conditions, not pancreatitis. Acid phosphatase is more related to prostate health and is not specific to pancreatitis. Creatine phosphokinase is found in tissues like muscle and brain, and elevated levels are seen in conditions like muscle injury or heart attack, not pancreatitis.
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