Nursing Elites

1. The client provides information to a pregnant client who is experiencing nausea and vomiting about measures to relieve the discomfort. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further information?

• A. ''I should eat five or six small meals a day rather than three full meals.''
• B. ''I need to be sure not to drink liquids with my meals.''
• C. ''I should keep dry crackers at my bedside and eat them before I get out of bed in the morning.''
• D. ''I need to avoid eating fried or greasy foods.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To alleviate nausea and vomiting, the client should avoid drinking liquids with meals. The client should keep dry crackers at her bedside, avoid fried foods, and eat smaller meals. Additionally, the client should eat dry crackers every 2 hours to prevent an empty stomach and avoid spicy foods and foods with strong odors, such as onion and cabbage. The incorrect choices are: A) Eating five or six small meals a day instead of three full meals is a correct recommendation. C) Keeping dry crackers at her bedside and eating them before getting out of bed in the morning is a helpful suggestion. D) Avoiding fried or greasy foods is a valid advice to alleviate nausea and vomiting.

2. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

3. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?

• A. vitiligo
• B. erythema
• C. cyanosis
• D. chloasma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.

4. The nurse, assisting with data collection of the abdomen, inspects the client’s abdomen. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next?

• A. Percussion
• B. Auscultation
• C. Light palpation
• D. Deep palpation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is auscultation. The assessment techniques used for a physical examination are inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. These techniques are normally performed in this order. However, in the abdominal examination, auscultation is performed after inspection and before palpation and percussion. This order is specific to the abdomen because palpation and percussion can increase peristalsis, leading to a false interpretation of bowel sounds. Therefore, auscultation is performed before palpation and percussion in abdominal assessments to ensure accurate bowel sound assessment. Percussion and palpation are performed after auscultation in abdominal assessments. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as auscultation is the next assessment technique to perform after inspection in abdominal assessments, followed by palpation and percussion.

5. A client with massive chest and head injuries is admitted to the ICU from the Emergency Department. All of the following are true except:

• A. The physician in charge of the case is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur.
• B. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation for the donor if the client is unable to do so.
• C. The organ procurement organization makes the decision regarding which organs to harvest.
• D. The donor (or legally responsible party for the donor), the physician, and the organ-procurement organization are all involved in the process.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: While the physician plays a crucial role in the process of organ donation, they are not the sole decision-maker. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation if the client is unable to do so. Additionally, the organ procurement organization is responsible for determining which organs are suitable for donation. Therefore, the statement that the physician in charge is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur is incorrect. The correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are true statements as they highlight the involvement of the legally responsible party, the organ procurement organization, and the donor/legally responsible party, physician, and organ-procurement organization in the organ donation process respectively.

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