NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. The client provides information to a pregnant client who is experiencing nausea and vomiting about measures to relieve the discomfort. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further information?
- A. ''I should eat five or six small meals a day rather than three full meals.''
- B. ''I need to be sure not to drink liquids with my meals.''
- C. ''I should keep dry crackers at my bedside and eat them before I get out of bed in the morning.''
- D. ''I need to avoid eating fried or greasy foods.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To alleviate nausea and vomiting, the client should avoid drinking liquids with meals. The client should keep dry crackers at her bedside, avoid fried foods, and eat smaller meals. Additionally, the client should eat dry crackers every 2 hours to prevent an empty stomach and avoid spicy foods and foods with strong odors, such as onion and cabbage. The incorrect choices are: A) Eating five or six small meals a day instead of three full meals is a correct recommendation. C) Keeping dry crackers at her bedside and eating them before getting out of bed in the morning is a helpful suggestion. D) Avoiding fried or greasy foods is a valid advice to alleviate nausea and vomiting.
2. A 2-year-old child diagnosed with HIV comes to a clinic for immunizations. Which of the following vaccines should the nurse expect to administer in addition to the scheduled vaccines?
- A. pneumococcal vaccine
- B. hepatitis A vaccine
- C. Lyme disease vaccine
- D. typhoid vaccine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a 2-year-old child diagnosed with HIV, in addition to the scheduled vaccines, the nurse should expect to administer the pneumococcal vaccine. Children with HIV are at an increased risk of infections, including pneumococcal disease. The pneumococcal vaccine helps protect against serious pneumococcal infections like pneumonia, meningitis, and bacteremia. The hepatitis A vaccine is not specifically recommended for all children with HIV unless there are specific risk factors. The Lyme disease vaccine is for individuals at risk for Lyme disease, typically between the ages of 15 and 70, transmitted by ticks. The typhoid vaccine is usually recommended for individuals traveling to endemic areas or working in specific high-risk occupations like microbiology laboratories dealing with Salmonella typhi.
3. When discussing birth control methods with a client, what major factor should a nurse focus on to provide the motivation needed for consistent implementation of a birth control method?
- A. Personal preference
- B. Work and home schedules
- C. Family planning goals
- D. Desire to have children in the future
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When discussing birth control methods with a client, a nurse should focus on the client's personal preference as a major factor that will provide the motivation needed for consistent implementation of a birth control method. Personal preference plays a key role in ensuring that the chosen method aligns with the client's lifestyle and values, increasing the likelihood of adherence. While work and home schedules, family planning goals, and the desire to have children in the future can influence the choice of birth control method, they are not the primary motivating factors for consistent implementation. Personal preference is crucial as it empowers the client to select a method that suits their individual needs and preferences, ultimately leading to better compliance and effectiveness.
4. A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?
- A. Continuing to check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes
- B. Notifying the registered nurse immediately
- C. Checking the client's uterine fundus
- D. Documenting the vital signs in the client's medical record
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.
5. A nurse suspects that a client has a distended bladder. On percussing the client's bladder, which finding does the nurse expect to note if the bladder is full?
- A. Dull sounds
- B. Hyperresonance sounds
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
- D. An absence of bowel sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When percussing a full bladder, the nurse expects to note dull sounds over the symphysis pubis. This is because a full bladder produces a flat or dull sound. Hyperresonance sounds are present with gaseous distention of the abdomen, not a full bladder. Bowel sounds are auscultated, not percussed, so hypoactive bowel sounds or an absence of bowel sounds are unrelated findings when assessing bladder distention.
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