Nursing Elites

1. A 50-milliliter (ml) bolus of normal saline fluid is ordered by the physician. The physician wants it to infuse in 30 minutes. The nurse should set the pump rate at:

• A. 100 ml per hour for one hour.
• B. 60 ml per hour for one-half hour
• C. 120 ml per hour for one hour.
• D. 50 ml per hour for one hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To infuse a 50 ml bolus in 30 minutes, the rate should be calculated as follows: 50 ml / 30 min = 100 ml per hour. Therefore, the correct answer is to set the pump rate at 100 ml per hour for one hour. Choice A is the correct rate based on the calculation. Choices B, C, and D all provide incorrect rates that do not match the physician's order. Choice B would only deliver 30 ml in 30 minutes, not the ordered 50 ml. Choice C would deliver 120 ml in one hour, which is 20 ml more than ordered. Choice D would only provide 25 ml over 30 minutes, not the full 50 ml prescribed.

2. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
• B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
• C. A history of minimal physical activity
• D. A history of the client's food intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

3. The nurse is assisting the RN with discharge instructions for a client with an implantable defibrillator. What discharge instruction is essential?

• A. "You can eat food prepared in a microwave."?
• B. "You should avoid moving the shoulder on the side of the defibrillator site for 6 weeks."?
• C. "You should use your cellphone on your right side."?
• D. "You will be able to fly on a commercial airliner with the defibrillator in place."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The essential discharge instruction for a client with an implantable defibrillator is to use any battery-operated machinery on the opposite side, including cellphones. This is to prevent interference with the device. Additionally, the client should monitor their pulse rate and report any dizziness or fainting, which could indicate issues with the defibrillator. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clients with implantable defibrillators can eat food prepared in the microwave, move their shoulder on the affected side after the initial healing period, and are allowed to fly on commercial airliners with the defibrillator in place.

4. Who may legally give informed consent?

• A. an 86-year-old male with advanced Alzheimer's disease
• B. a 14-year-old girl needing an appendectomy who is not an emancipated minor
• C. a 14-year-old girl needing an appendectomy who is not an emancipated minor
• D. a 6-month-old baby needing bowel surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a 14-year-old girl needing an appendectomy who is not an emancipated minor. Informed consent can be given by individuals who are competent and not minors. Minors are generally unable to provide informed consent unless they are emancipated. Choice A is incorrect because an 86-year-old male with advanced Alzheimer's disease is considered incompetent to make decisions. Choice D is incorrect because a 6-month-old baby is unable to provide consent. Emancipated minors are an exception to the minor rule, as they can provide consent for their own treatment.

5. A contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in a client with atopic dermatitis (eczema) is:

• A. parasitic infection
• B. fungal infection
• C. spirochetal infection
• D. viral infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Topical corticosteroids are mainly used for their localized effects. When treating atopic dermatitis with a steroidal preparation, there is a risk of the site being vulnerable to invasion by organisms. Viruses like herpes simplex or varicella zoster pose a threat of disseminated infection. Therefore, viral infection is a contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in clients with atopic dermatitis. It is crucial to educate clients using topical corticosteroids to avoid crowds or people with infections and to promptly report any signs of infection. Choices A, B, and C (parasitic, fungal, and spirochetal infections) are not typically contraindications for topical corticosteroid use in the context of atopic dermatitis, as these agents do not pose the same risk of disseminated infection or systemic effects as viral infections.

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