Nursing Elites

1. A 50-milliliter (ml) bolus of normal saline fluid is ordered by the physician. The physician wants it to infuse in 30 minutes. The nurse should set the pump rate at:

• A. 100 ml per hour for one hour.
• B. 60 ml per hour for one-half hour
• C. 120 ml per hour for one hour.
• D. 50 ml per hour for one hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To infuse a 50 ml bolus in 30 minutes, the rate should be calculated as follows: 50 ml / 30 min = 100 ml per hour. Therefore, the correct answer is to set the pump rate at 100 ml per hour for one hour. Choice A is the correct rate based on the calculation. Choices B, C, and D all provide incorrect rates that do not match the physician's order. Choice B would only deliver 30 ml in 30 minutes, not the ordered 50 ml. Choice C would deliver 120 ml in one hour, which is 20 ml more than ordered. Choice D would only provide 25 ml over 30 minutes, not the full 50 ml prescribed.

2. A client arrives in the emergency room with a possible fractured femur. The nurse should anticipate an order for:

• A. Trendelenburg position
• B. Ice to the entire extremity
• C. Buck's traction
• D. An abduction pillow

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Buck's traction. This intervention is used to realign the fractured femur, reduce spasms, and alleviate pain. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is inappropriate for a femur fracture, making answer A incorrect. While ice may be used post-repair, applying it to the entire extremity is unnecessary, so answer B is wrong. An abduction pillow is typically employed following a total hip replacement, not for a fractured femur, rendering answer D incorrect.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

4. The client with diabetes is preparing for discharge. During discharge teaching, the nurse assesses the client's ability to care for himself. Which statement made by the client would indicate a need for follow-up after discharge?

• A. "I live by myself."?
• B. "I have trouble seeing."?
• C. "I have a cat in the house with me."?
• D. "I usually drive myself to the doctor."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with diabetes who has trouble seeing would require follow-up after discharge. The lack of visual acuity for the client preparing and injecting insulin might require help. Answers A, C, and D will not prevent the client from being able to care for himself and are incorrect. Living alone (Choice A) does not necessarily indicate a need for follow-up unless there are specific concerns. Having a cat at home (Choice C) and driving to the doctor (Choice D) are not direct indicators of the client's ability to care for himself.

5. Due to a high census, it has been necessary for a number of clients to be transferred to other units within the hospital. Which client should be transferred to the postpartum unit?

• A. A 66-year-old female with gastroenteritis
• B. A 40-year-old female with a hysterectomy
• C. A 27-year-old male with severe depression
• D. A 28-year-old male with ulcerative colitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best client to transfer to the postpartum unit is the 40-year-old female with a hysterectomy. The nurses on the postpartum unit will be knowledgeable about postoperative care and can manage any complications related to the surgery. Choices A and D would be more appropriately cared for on a medical-surgical unit due to their conditions. Choice C should be transferred to a psychiatric unit for specialized care related to severe depression.

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