Nursing Elites

1. A 50-milliliter (ml) bolus of normal saline fluid is ordered by the physician. The physician wants it to infuse in 30 minutes. The nurse should set the pump rate at:

• A. 100 ml per hour for one hour.
• B. 60 ml per hour for one-half hour
• C. 120 ml per hour for one hour.
• D. 50 ml per hour for one hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To infuse a 50 ml bolus in 30 minutes, the rate should be calculated as follows: 50 ml / 30 min = 100 ml per hour. Therefore, the correct answer is to set the pump rate at 100 ml per hour for one hour. Choice A is the correct rate based on the calculation. Choices B, C, and D all provide incorrect rates that do not match the physician's order. Choice B would only deliver 30 ml in 30 minutes, not the ordered 50 ml. Choice C would deliver 120 ml in one hour, which is 20 ml more than ordered. Choice D would only provide 25 ml over 30 minutes, not the full 50 ml prescribed.

2. The nurse observes bilateral bruises on the arms of an elderly client in a long-term care facility. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask this client?

• A. "How did you get those bruises?"?
• B. "Did someone grab you by your arms?"?
• C. "Do you fall often?"?
• D. "What did you bump against?"?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When addressing suspected abuse, it is crucial to ask direct questions to determine the cause of injuries. Choice B is the most appropriate as it directly inquires about the possibility of someone grabbing the client's arms, which could indicate abuse. This question can help uncover potential abuse and provide necessary intervention. Choices A, C, and D are less direct and may not elicit the critical information needed to address abuse effectively. Clients often hesitate to report abuse due to feelings of shame and fear of retaliation, making a direct approach essential in such situations.

3. A nurse notes that an elderly client suddenly does not keep appointments and is not wearing appropriate clothing. Which statement by the client raises the suspicion of financial abuse?

• A. "I am having difficulty paying for this new antibiotic the physician prescribed."?
• B. "I am a little short on cash since my daughter moved in to help me."?
• C. "I have not felt like shopping since the weather has gotten worse."?
• D. "People do not realize how difficult it is to make ends meet on a fixed income."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I am a little short on cash since my daughter moved in to help me."? This statement raises suspicion of financial abuse as it suggests a recent change in financial circumstances after the daughter moved in. Financial abuse in elderly clients can be indicated by sudden unexplained financial deficits or changes, such as difficulty paying for necessities despite previously being able to do so. Choices A, C, and D do not directly imply a recent financial change due to external factors, making them less indicative of potential financial abuse. Option B is the most concerning statement that warrants further investigation into possible financial exploitation.

4. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

• A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
• B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
• C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
• D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

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