NCLEX-PN
2024 Nclex Questions
1. A man expresses surprise that his wife has become very withdrawn during hospitalization for pneumonia. Which response helps the husband understand how some people cope with hospitalization?
- A. "Hospitalization might cause a crisis. Has your wife had to cope with problems before this?"?
- B. "Some people react that way. She will be more talkative when she feels better."?
- C. "Your wife might be feeling concern that she cannot fulfill her normal roles."?
- D. "This is typical behavior for someone who is as ill as your wife."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response acknowledges that hospitalization can lead to a crisis for both patients and their families. By asking if the wife has coped with problems before, it opens up a dialogue about her coping mechanisms and past experiences. This can help the husband understand his wife's current behavior better and provide valuable insights. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the potential crisis that hospitalization can cause or inquire about the wife's coping strategies, making them less effective responses.
2. The nurse is assigning staff for the day. Which assignment should be given to the nursing assistant?
- A. Taking the vital signs of the 5-month-old with bronchiolitis
- B. Taking the vital signs of the 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy
- C. Administering medication to the 2-year-old with periorbital cellulitis
- D. Adjusting the traction of the 1-year-old with a fractured tibia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant is to take the vital signs of a stable patient. A 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy is considered stable, and routine vital signs monitoring can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant. Clients with bronchiolitis, periorbital cellulitis, and a fractured tibia require more specialized care and assessment by a licensed nurse. Bronchiolitis involves an airway alteration, periorbital cellulitis indicates an infection, and a fractured tibia may raise concerns of abuse. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect for delegation to a nursing assistant.
3. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?
- A. Assessment of the client's level of anxiety
- B. Evaluation of the client's exercise tolerance
- C. Identification of peripheral pulses
- D. Assessment of bowel sounds and activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client with a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm scheduled for surgical repair is the identification of peripheral pulses. During surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess peripheral pulses and monitor the return of circulation to the lower extremities postoperatively. Assessing the client's level of anxiety (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as ensuring adequate circulation. Evaluating exercise tolerance (Choice B) is not recommended preoperatively for this situation. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (Choice D) is of lesser concern compared to the critical need to monitor peripheral circulation.
4. If the client is receiving peritoneal dialysis and the dialysate returns cloudy, what should the nurse do?
- A. Document the finding
- B. Send a specimen to the lab
- C. Strain the dialysate
- D. Obtain a complete blood count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When the dialysate returns cloudy, it could indicate the presence of infection, and sending a specimen to the lab for evaluation is crucial to determine the cause. Documenting the finding alone, as in choice A, may not provide enough information for proper intervention. Straining the dialysate, as in choice C, is not a standard practice and may not help identify the underlying issue. Obtaining a complete blood count, as in choice D, is not directly related to addressing cloudiness in the dialysate. However, the healthcare provider might order a white blood cell count to assess for infection.
5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?
- A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
- B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
- C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
- D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access