Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary goal of family education?

• A. symptom reduction
• B. improved quality of life
• C. increased knowledge about mental illness
• D. improved caregiving skills

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of family education is to improve the quality of life. Family education aims to enhance the overall well-being and functioning of both the individual with the condition and their family members. While increased knowledge about mental illness may be a beneficial outcome, it is not the primary objective of family education. Symptom reduction is more commonly associated with psychoeducation rather than family education. Improving caregiving skills is a component of family education, but the primary focus is on improving the quality of life for everyone involved in the caregiving process.

2. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

• A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
• B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
• C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
• D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.

3. The client is being assessed for possible pernicious anemia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?

• A. A weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks
• B. Complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities
• C. A red, beefy tongue
• D. A hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a red, beefy tongue, which is characteristic of pernicious anemia due to the atrophy of the papillae on the tongue. This finding is known as glossitis. A red, beefy tongue is a classic sign of pernicious anemia. Choice A, weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks, is non-specific and not a typical finding in pernicious anemia. Choice B, complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities, are more indicative of peripheral neuropathy, a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be seen in pernicious anemia. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL, falls within the normal range and does not specifically point towards pernicious anemia, which is characterized by low hemoglobin levels due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a malignancy. The classification of the primary tumor is Tis. The nurse should plan care for a tumor:

• A. That can be assessed
• B. That is in situ
• C. With increasing lymph node involvement
• D. With distant metastasis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'That is in situ.' Cancer in situ means that the cancer is still localized to the primary site. Cancer is graded in terms of tumor, grade, node involvement, and metastasis. Answer A is incorrect because Tis indicates a tumor that is in situ and can be assessed. Answer C is incorrect because T indicates tumor, not node involvement. Answer D is incorrect because a tumor that is in situ is not metastasized.

5. The physician has ordered sodium warfarin (Coumadin) for the client with thrombophlebitis. The order should be entered to administer the medication at:

• A. 900
• B. 1200
• C. 1700
• D. 2100

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sodium warfarin is typically administered in the late afternoon, around 1700 hours. This timing allows for accurate bleeding times to be drawn in the morning. Administering it at 0900 (choice A) would not align with this schedule and may affect the monitoring of bleeding times. Choice B (1200) is midday, which is not the recommended time for sodium warfarin administration. Choice D (2100) is in the evening, which is also not ideal. Therefore, the correct time for administering sodium warfarin is 1700 (choice C).

Similar Questions