Nursing Elites

1. An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?

• A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
• B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
• C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
• D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.

2. A wrong committed by one person against another (or against the property of another) that might result in a civil trial is:

• A. a tort
• B. a crime
• C. a misdemeanor
• D. a felony

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A tort is a civil wrong committed by one person against another person (or against the property of another) that might result in civil trials. Unlike crimes, which are considered wrongs against the public, torts are personal wrongs. Misdemeanors are crimes punishable with fines or imprisonment for less than one year, whereas felonies are serious crimes punishable by imprisonment for more than one year in a State or Federal penitentiary. Therefore, the correct answer is a tort as it aligns with the definition of a civil wrong that leads to potential civil trials, distinguishing it from crimes, misdemeanors, and felonies.

3. A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:

• A. Gravida 2, para 6
• B. Gravida 6, para 2
• C. Gravida 3, para 6
• D. Gravida 2, para 2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.

4. The client has an order for a 1,000 mL bag of fluids to be infused over 8 hours. What is the correct rate?

• A. 100 mL/hr
• B. 125 mL/min
• C. 125 mL/hr
• D. 80 mL/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the correct infusion rate, divide the total volume of fluids (1,000 mL) by the total infusion time (8 hours), resulting in a rate of 125 mL/hr. This calculation ensures the appropriate administration of fluids over the specified time period. Choice A (100 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate based on the given information. Choice B (125 mL/min) is inaccurate because the question specifies the rate in hours, not minutes. Choice D (80 mL/min) is incorrect as it provides the rate in minutes rather than hours, which is the required unit for this scenario.

5. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

Similar Questions