Nursing Elites

1. An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?

• A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
• B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
• C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
• D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.

2. How should a nurse listen to the breath sounds of a client?

• A. Ask the client to lie prone.
• B. Ask the client to breathe in and out through the nose.
• C. Hold the bell of the stethoscope lightly against the chest.
• D. Listen for at least one full respiration in each location on the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To best listen to breath sounds, the nurse should have the client sit, leaning slightly forward, with arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little deeper than usual, but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should hold the flat diaphragm end piece of the stethoscope firmly against the client's chest wall. It is crucial to listen for at least one full respiration in each location on the chest to assess breath sounds accurately. Side-to-side comparison is essential in breath sound assessment. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the correct procedure for listening to breath sounds.

3. When planning for the physical assessment of the woman, the nurse ensures that which occurs?

• A. The woman is examined by a female health care provider.
• B. The woman's husband remains in the examining room at all times.
• C. The woman is examined without any other people in the examining room.
• D. Written permission is obtained from the woman to obtain subjective health data.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In many cultures, including Muslim, Hindu, and Latino, modesty is important, and exposure of a woman's genitals to men is considered demeaning. To respect the patient's cultural beliefs and modesty, it is best for a female health care provider to perform the examination. This practice helps to ensure the patient's comfort and adherence to cultural norms. Having the woman examined without any other people in the room (Choice C) may not address the cultural sensitivity required for this situation. Having the woman's husband remain in the examining room at all times (Choice B) may not align with the patient's cultural preferences and may cause discomfort. Written permission from the woman to obtain subjective health data (Choice D) is not directly related to ensuring a culturally sensitive physical assessment in this context.

4. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.

5. A nurse is interviewing an older adult while assisting with data collection. Which client comment regarding vision requires immediate discussion with the health care provider?

• A. "If I go from a very bright room to a very dark room, I have some trouble adjusting."
• B. "I have to hold my newspaper farther and farther away from me when I read."
• C. "I have a little trouble telling if my same-colored shirts and blouses actually match; the colors seem the same to me."
• D. "It looks like I have a blank spot in the middle of what I'm trying to see."

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is "It looks like I have a blank spot in the middle of what I'm trying to see." Seeing blank spots in the middle of an object is a sign of central vision loss, which is a symptom of macular degeneration. Macular degeneration is a serious condition that requires immediate discussion with a healthcare provider to prevent further vision loss. Choice A, mentioning difficulty adjusting between bright and dark rooms, is a common issue related to changes in lighting and not a cause for immediate concern. Choice B, having to hold objects farther away when reading, is indicative of presbyopia, a normal age-related change in vision. Choice C, experiencing slight changes in color perception, is also a common age-related change and not an urgent issue that necessitates immediate discussion with a healthcare provider.

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