Nursing Elites

1. When a client who is having trouble conceiving says to the nurse, 'I have started taking ginseng,' the best response by the nurse is:

• A. "There is some evidence that ginseng may enhance in vitro sperm motility."?
• B. "Some studies show that ginseng enhances in vitro sperm motility."?
• C. "Ginseng is not proven to be effective for infertility; have you considered other options?"?
• D. "It's probably not going to hurt you, but it's also probably not going to help. Let's look at some other alternatives."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Some studies have shown that ginseng enhances in vitro sperm motility, making Choice B the correct response. It directly addresses the client's comments about taking ginseng and provides valuable information regarding its potential effect on sperm motility. Alternative therapies are often sought by couples struggling with infertility, and acknowledging the potential benefits of ginseng can empower the client. Choice A is incorrect as it slightly misrepresents the evidence by overgeneralizing its effectiveness. Choice C dismisses ginseng without acknowledging its potential benefits, potentially closing off a fruitful discussion with the client. Choice D, while neutral, misses the opportunity to validate the client's choice and explore further options collaboratively. It is crucial for nurses to respect clients' choices, provide accurate information, and guide them effectively in exploring different alternatives.

2. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

3. A 35-year-old Latin-American client wishes to lose weight to reduce her chances of developing heart disease and diabetes. The client states, "I do not know how to make my diet work with the kind of foods that my family eats."? What should the nurse do first to help the client determine a suitable diet for disease prevention?

• A. Provide her with copies of the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetic Association and the American Heart Association.
• B. Ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs.
• C. Provide a high-protein diet plan for the client.
• D. Provide the client with information related to risk factors for heart disease and diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs. Assessment is the first step in helping the client establish a suitable diet for disease prevention. By understanding the client's current dietary habits, the nurse can tailor recommendations based on the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetic Association and the American Heart Association. Providing a high-protein diet plan without assessing the client's current diet may not align with her cultural preferences or health goals. While educating the client on risk factors for heart disease and diabetes is essential, it is not the initial step in developing a personalized dietary plan.

4. The greatest time savers when planning client care include all of the following except:

• A. reacting to the crisis of the moment
• B. setting goals
• C. planning
• D. specifying priorities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The greatest time-savers when planning client care are activities that facilitate focus and completion of priority items. Time-savers include setting goals, specifying priorities, planning tasks, delegating where appropriate, reassessment, and ongoing evaluation of needs. Reacting to the crisis of the moment is not a time-saving strategy in client care planning; it can lead to inefficiency, lack of focus, and potentially missing important priority items. Therefore, the correct answer is 'reacting to the crisis of the moment.' Choices B, C, and D are essential components for effective client care planning as they help in organizing and prioritizing tasks, setting objectives, and ensuring a structured approach to care delivery.

5. What is the primary theory that explains a family's concept of health and illness?

• A. Health Belief Model
• B. Education Factor
• C. Family Health Belief Model
• D. Family Dynamics Model

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Health Belief Model. The Health Belief Model is a widely recognized theory that explains individuals' perceptions and behaviors related to health and illness. It considers factors such as perceived susceptibility, severity of health issues, benefits of action, and barriers to taking action. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'Education Factor,' is too general and does not specifically address a family's concept of health and illness. Choice C, 'Family Health Belief Model,' is a combination of terms and not a recognized theory. Choice D, 'Family Dynamics Model,' focuses on family interactions rather than explaining a family's concept of health and illness.

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