Nursing Elites

1. The goals of palliative care include all of the following except:

• A. giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible
• B. taking care of the whole person"?body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul
• C. no interventions are needed because the client is near death
• D. supporting the needs of the family and client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The goals of palliative care include choices A, B, and D. Choice C, 'no interventions are needed because the client is near death,' is not part of palliative care. Palliative care involves giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible, taking care of the whole person"?body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul, and supporting the needs of the family and client. Interventions are crucial in palliative care to ensure the comfort and well-being of the client until the end of life. Therefore, the correct answer is that no interventions are needed because the client is near death.

2. The LPN is taking care of a 176-pound client who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. The primary healthcare provider has written an order for Lantus® (insulin glargine injection) 100 units/mL, using weight-based dosing of 0.2 units/kg per day. The LPN should prepare ____ units for administration.

• A. 12
• B. 35
• C. 16
• D. 9

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms. As 1 kg = 2.2 pounds, 176 pounds ÷ 2.2 = 80 kg. The client should receive 0.2 units for every kilogram, which equals 16 units. Therefore, the total amount to prepare is 16 units x 100 units/mL = 1600 units. Considering the medication concentration of 100 units/mL, 1600 units ÷ 100 units/mL = 16 mL. However, since the question asks for the number of units, the final answer is 16 units x 2 injections = 32 units. Therefore, the LPN should prepare 32 units for administration.

3. An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?

• A. closure of the posterior fontanel.
• B. closure of the anterior fontanel.
• C. overlap of cranial bones.
• D. ossification of the sutures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the posterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the posterior fontanel should be closed. The anterior fontanel typically closes around 12-18 months of age. Overlapping of cranial bones is not a normal finding and may indicate craniosynostosis, a condition where the sutures close too early. Ossification of the sutures is also not a normal finding in a 10-month-old baby as the sutures should remain open to allow for the growth of the skull.

4. What type of immunity do vaccines provide?

• A. active
• B. passive
• C. transplacental
• D. active and passive

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vaccines provide active immunity by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies against specific pathogens. Choice B, passive immunity, is acquired from ready-made antibodies, not through vaccination. Choice C, transplacental immunity, is a form of passive immunity transferred from mother to infant, not acquired through vaccines. Therefore, the correct answer is active immunity.

5. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

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