Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary focus of a case manager?

• A. Addressing nursing care needs at discharge.
• B. Managing the comprehensive care needs of the client for continuity of care.
• C. Providing client education needs upon discharge.
• D. Securing financial resources for needed care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Managing the comprehensive care needs of the client for continuity of care.' Case managers oversee all aspects of a client's care to ensure continuity throughout their healthcare journey. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses only on nursing care needs at discharge, which is just a part of the overall care needed. Choice C narrows down the focus to client education needs, excluding other essential care components. Choice D solely considers financial resources, neglecting the broader scope of care needs that a case manager is accountable for.

2. When assessing the carotid artery of a client with cardiovascular disease, what action should a nurse perform?

• A. Palpating the carotid artery in the upper third of the neck
• B. Palpating both arteries simultaneously to compare amplitude
• C. Listening to the carotid artery, using the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits
• D. Instructing the client to take slow, deep breaths while the nurse listens to the carotid artery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing the carotid artery of a client with cardiovascular disease, the nurse should listen to the carotid artery using the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits. This is crucial in detecting abnormal sounds that may indicate underlying pathology. Palpating the carotid artery in the upper third of the neck can trigger a vagal response, leading to a decrease in heart rate, which is undesirable. Palpating both arteries simultaneously can disrupt blood flow to the brain. Instructing the client to take slow, deep breaths is unnecessary and not a standard practice during carotid artery assessment.

3. Which of the following solutions is routinely used to flush an IV device before and after the administration of blood to a client?

• A. 0.9% sodium chloride
• B. 5% dextrose in water solution
• C. Sterile water
• D. Heparin sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 0.9% sodium chloride. Normal saline is 0.9% sodium chloride, which has the same osmolarity as blood and does not cause cell lysis. Choices 2 and 3, 5% dextrose in water solution and sterile water, are hypotonic solutions that can lead to cell lysis. Choice 4, heparin sodium, is an anticoagulant and is not used for flushing IV devices before and after blood administration.

4. A client is scheduled to undergo a Papanicolaou (Pap) test in 1 week. Which statement does the nurse make to the client?

• A. 'If you are menstruating, use pads instead of a tampon.'
• B. 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.'
• C. 'Get a douching kit from the pharmacy and douche 2 hours before the examination.'
• D. 'If you are having a vaginal discharge, obtain a sample of the discharge for inspection.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.' The Pap test is used to screen for cervical cancer. It is not performed during menstruation or if a heavy infectious discharge is present. Before the test, the client should not douche, have intercourse, or insert anything into the vagina within 24 hours. Instructing the client to use pads instead of a tampon when menstruating can interfere with the test results due to the presence of blood. Douching before the exam is discouraged as it can alter the cervical cells' appearance, affecting the test's accuracy. Obtaining a sample of vaginal discharge for inspection is not a standard pre-Pap test instruction and is unnecessary for the test.

5. The mother of an adolescent calls the clinic nurse and reports that her daughter wants to have her navel pierced. The mother asks the nurse about the dangers associated with body piercing. The nurse provides which information to the mother?

• A. Infection always occurs when body piercing is done
• B. Hepatitis B is a concern with body piercing
• C. Body piercing is generally harmless as long as it is performed under sterile conditions
• D. It is important to discourage body piercing because of the risk of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Generally, body piercing is harmless if the procedure is performed under sterile conditions by a qualified person. Some complications that may occur include bleeding, infection, keloid formation, and the development of allergies to metal. It is essential to clean the area at least twice a day (more often for a tongue piercing) to prevent infection. HIV and hepatitis B infections are not typically associated with body piercing; however, they are a possibility with tattooing. Choice A is incorrect because infection does not always occur when body piercing is done. Choice B is not the best answer as hepatitis B is not commonly associated with body piercing. Choice D is incorrect because the risk of contracting HIV is not a significant concern with body piercing if performed under sterile conditions.

Similar Questions