Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary focus of a case manager?

• A. Addressing nursing care needs at discharge.
• B. Managing the comprehensive care needs of the client for continuity of care.
• C. Providing client education needs upon discharge.
• D. Securing financial resources for needed care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Managing the comprehensive care needs of the client for continuity of care.' Case managers oversee all aspects of a client's care to ensure continuity throughout their healthcare journey. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses only on nursing care needs at discharge, which is just a part of the overall care needed. Choice C narrows down the focus to client education needs, excluding other essential care components. Choice D solely considers financial resources, neglecting the broader scope of care needs that a case manager is accountable for.

2. Which of the following statements, if made by the parents of a newborn, does not indicate a need for further teaching about cord care?

• A. "I should put alcohol on my baby's cord 3-4 times a day."?
• B. "I should put the baby's diaper on so that it covers the cord."?
• C. "I should call the physician if the cord becomes dark."?
• D. "I should wash my hands before and after I take care of the cord."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Explanation: Parents should be taught that putting alcohol or other antimicrobials on the cord is no longer recommended for cord care. This can interfere with the natural healing process and may increase the risk of irritation or infection. Washing hands before and after providing cord care is essential to prevent the transfer of pathogens. Placing the baby's diaper below the cord allows it to be exposed to air and promotes drying, reducing the risk of infection. It is normal for the cord to turn dark as it dries, so calling the physician only if the cord becomes red, swollen, or has discharge is appropriate. Therefore, the statement '"I should put alcohol on my baby's cord 3-4 times a day."?' indicates a need for further teaching about cord care.

3. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

4. What is the threshold of dextrose concentrations that can safely be administered through a peripheral IV?

• A. Dextrose concentrations below 20% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 20% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• B. Dextrose concentrations below 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• C. Dextrose concentrations below 10% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• D. Dextrose concentrations above 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations below 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dextrose concentrations below 10% are considered safe for administration through a peripheral IV, as concentrations above this threshold can lead to phlebitis, causing inflammation of the vein. Concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV to prevent vein irritation. Choice A is incorrect because concentrations above 20% are too high for a peripheral IV. Choice B is incorrect as dextrose concentrations below 5% are too low to be effective. Choice D is incorrect because the statement is reversed, suggesting that concentrations above 5% are safe, which is not true.

5. A nurse is preparing to assess the function of a client's spinal accessory nerve. Which action does the nurse ask the client to take to aid assessment of this nerve?

• A. Smiling
• B. Clenching the teeth
• C. Shrugging the shoulders against the nurse's resistance
• D. Identifying by taste a substance placed on the back of the tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the examiner checks the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size. Equal strength is assessed by asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance applied to the side of the chin and by asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. These movements should feel equally strong on the two sides. The client is asked to smile as a test of the function of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The client's ability to clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). The client's taste perception is used to assess the sensory function of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). Therefore, the correct action to assess the spinal accessory nerve is to ask the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. The other options are used to assess different cranial nerves, making them incorrect choices.

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