Nursing Elites

1. At what age are yearly mammograms recommended to start?

• A. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 25.
• B. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 40.
• C. Yearly mammograms are not necessary unless there is a family history of breast cancer.
• D. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 20 and continuing until menopause begins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms starting at age 40 and continuing for as long as a woman is in good health. Clinical breast examination should be done about every 3 years for women in their 20s and 30s and every year for women age 40 and older. Women should know how their breasts normally look and feel and report any breast change promptly to the healthcare provider. Breast self-examination should be done monthly starting when a woman is in her 20s. Choice A is incorrect as mammograms are not recommended to start at age 25. Choice C is incorrect as yearly mammograms are still recommended even without a family history of breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended age for starting yearly mammograms is 40, not 20.

2. When assessing Mr. Lee's eye condition, what general information should the nurse seek?

• A. Type of employment.
• B. Burning or itchy sensation in the eyes.
• C. Position of the eyelids.
• D. Existence of floaters.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient's eye condition, the nurse should seek general information such as the type of employment, activities, allergies, medications, lenses, and protective devices used. This information helps in understanding potential exposures to irritants and risks related to activities. While the presence of burning or itchy sensation in the eyes, position of the eyelids, and existence of floaters are important aspects to assess during a focused eye examination, during the initial assessment, the type of employment is more relevant for understanding possible environmental factors affecting eye health.

3. When meeting nurses for the first time, a new nurse manager makes eye contact, smiles, initiates conversation about their previous work experience, and encourages active participation. This behavior is an example of

• A. aggressiveness
• B. passive aggressiveness
• C. passiveness
• D. assertiveness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse manager is demonstrating assertive behavior by confidently engaging with the nurses through eye contact, smiling, and encouraging participation. This behavior shows a balance between expressing her own opinions and respecting others. Aggressive behavior would involve dominating or embarrassing others, while passive behavior is characterized by being timid or nervous. Passive-aggressive behavior is indirect and manipulative, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.

4. Which of the following home-care strategies is most likely to negatively impact the body image of a client with Cushing's syndrome?

• A. providing safety measures to prevent falls
• B. taking medications as prescribed
• C. wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing's syndrome
• D. having regular health assessments

Correct answer: C

Rationale: All of the strategies listed are essential components of home care for a client with Cushing's syndrome. However, wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing's syndrome is the correct answer as it can have a negative impact on body image. This choice may constantly remind the client of their condition, potentially affecting their self-image and confidence. On the contrary, providing safety measures to prevent falls (Choice A) would enhance body image by promoting safety and preventing injuries. Taking medications as prescribed (Choice B) is likely to improve body image by managing symptoms effectively. Having regular health assessments (Choice D) demonstrates good self-care and can positively contribute to body image by showing a commitment to maintaining health.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to perform a Rinne test on a client who complains of hearing loss. In which area does the healthcare provider first place an activated tuning fork?

• A. On the client's teeth
• B. On the client's forehead
• C. On the client's mastoid bone
• D. On the midline of the client's skull

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Rinne test, the base of an activated tuning fork is held first against the mastoid bone, behind the ear, and then in front of the ear canal (0.5 to 2 inches). When the client no longer perceives the sound behind the ear, the fork is moved in front of the ear canal until the client indicates that the sound can no longer be heard. The client reports whether the sound from the tuning fork is louder behind the ear (on the mastoid bone) or in front of the ear canal. Placing the tuning fork on the teeth (Choice A), forehead (Choice B), or the midline of the skull (Choice D) is not part of the Rinne test procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is to first place the activated tuning fork on the client's mastoid bone.

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