NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. A 62-year-old female is being seen on a home visit by a nurse. The patient reports she has been taking Premarin for years. Which of the following would indicate an overdose?
- A. Lower extremity edema
- B. Sensory changes in the upper extremities
- C. Increased occurrence of fractures
- D. Decreased peripheral blood flow
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lower extremity edema can indicate an overdose of Premarin. Premarin, an estrogen hormone replacement therapy, can cause fluid retention leading to edema in the lower extremities. Sensory changes in the upper extremities, increased occurrence of fractures, and decreased peripheral blood flow are not typically associated with an overdose of Premarin.
2. Following a thyroidectomy, a client is complaining of shortness of breath (SOB) and neck pressure. Which nursing action is the best response?
- A. Stay with the client, remove the dressing, and elevate the head of bed.
- B. Call a code, open the trach set, and position the client supine.
- C. Have the client say "EEE"? to check for laryngeal integrity.
- D. Immediately go to the nurse's station and call the physician
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! The client is displaying signs of respiratory distress after a thyroidectomy. By staying with the client, removing the dressing around the neck, and elevating the head of the bed, the nurse can assess the airway and breathing status more effectively. This immediate action can help alleviate any potential airway obstruction. Choice B is incorrect because calling a code and opening the trach set without initial assessment and basic interventions may delay necessary actions. Choice C is incorrect as having the client say "EEE"? is not as immediate or effective in addressing the respiratory distress. Choice D is incorrect as leaving the client alone and calling the physician without providing immediate assistance can be detrimental in a situation of potential airway compromise.
3. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by
- A. the kidneys' inability to excrete the drug metabolites.
- B. rapid cell catabolism.
- C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently.
- D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' Chemotherapy leads to the destruction of cells, resulting in increased uric acid levels due to cell breakdown. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is not with the kidneys' ability to excrete the drug metabolites but rather with the cell breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as the question focuses on chemotherapy and its effects, not prophylactic antibiotics. Choice D is incorrect as the question pertains to the development of high uric acid levels, not altered blood pH from acidic drugs.
4. After administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously into the abdomen, which action should the nurse take?
- A. Gently rub the injection site after removing the needle
- B. Have the client maintain a side-lying position for at least five minutes
- C. Remove the needle and engage the needle safety device
- D. Apply heat to the injection site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After administering a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox) into the abdomen, the nurse should remove the needle and engage the needle safety device. Rubbing the injection site after the needle is withdrawn is not recommended as it may cause irritation and bruising. Having the client maintain a side-lying position for at least five minutes is unnecessary for a subcutaneous injection into the abdomen. Applying heat to the injection site is not indicated after administering enoxaparin subcutaneously; it could increase the risk of bleeding or bruising at the injection site.
5. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
- A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
- B. ondansetron (Zofran)
- C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
- D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist that can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron (Zofran) works by blocking serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) and the gastrointestinal tract. This action helps reduce nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide (Reglan) works as a dopamine antagonist and also has prokinetic effects, making it effective for different conditions. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but it does not act as a serotonin antagonist. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist that is also used to treat nausea and vomiting, but not as a serotonin antagonist like ondansetron.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access