NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. A 62-year-old female is being seen on a home visit by a nurse. The patient reports she has been taking Premarin for years. Which of the following would indicate an overdose?
- A. Lower extremity edema
- B. Sensory changes in the upper extremities
- C. Increased occurrence of fractures
- D. Decreased peripheral blood flow
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lower extremity edema can indicate an overdose of Premarin. Premarin, an estrogen hormone replacement therapy, can cause fluid retention leading to edema in the lower extremities. Sensory changes in the upper extremities, increased occurrence of fractures, and decreased peripheral blood flow are not typically associated with an overdose of Premarin.
2. A nurse is covering a pediatric unit and is responsible for a 15-year-old male patient on the floor. The mother of the child states, "I think my son is sexually interested in girls."? The most appropriate course of action for the nurse is to respond by stating:
- A. "I will talk to the doctor about it."?
- B. "Has this been going on for a while?"?
- C. "How do you know this?"?
- D. "Teenagers often exhibit signs of sexual interest in females."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate response for the nurse in this situation is to acknowledge that teenagers often exhibit signs of sexual interest in females. This response normalizes the mother's concern and provides reassurance that such behavior is typical during adolescence. Option A deflects the conversation to the doctor without addressing the mother's concern directly. Option B focuses on the duration rather than addressing the mother's statement. Option C may come off as defensive or dismissive, questioning the mother's observation. Therefore, the best response is to acknowledge the normalcy of teenage behavior regarding sexual interest.
3. What is the best position for a client immediately following a bilateral salpingooophorectomy?
- A. Fowler's
- B. Modified Sims
- C. Side lying
- D. Flat supine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best position for a client immediately following a bilateral salpingooophorectomy is side lying. This position promotes comfort with the knees flexed and ensures proper airway management. Fowler's position (Choice A) would not be ideal as it involves sitting at a 90-degree angle, potentially causing discomfort after this procedure. Modified Sims position (Choice B) is typically used for rectal examinations, not for post-surgical management. Flat supine (Choice D) may not be the best choice immediately after surgery as it does not provide the same level of comfort and airway protection as side lying with knees flexed.
4. A 28-year-old male has a diagnosis of AIDS. The patient has had a two-year history of AIDS. The most likely cognitive deficits include which of the following?
- A. Disorientation
- B. Sensory changes
- C. Inability to produce sound
- D. Hearing deficits
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In individuals with AIDS, cognitive deficits commonly manifest as confusion and disorientation, making choice A, 'Disorientation,' the correct answer. Sensory changes (choice B) and hearing deficits (choice D) are more related to sensory processing rather than cognitive impairment. 'Inability to produce sound' (choice C) is more indicative of a speech or language deficit rather than a cognitive impairment typically seen in AIDS patients.
5. Which system is primarily affected by tuberculosis (Mycobacterium)?
- A. stomach (GI)
- B. heart (cardiac)
- C. lungs (respiratory)
- D. skin (integumentary)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis, caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, primarily affects the respiratory system. This aerobic bacillus thrives in highly oxygenated body sites, such as the lungs, growing ends of bones, and the brain. The bacillus is airborne, making the lungs a common site for infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as tuberculosis predominantly impacts the respiratory system and rarely involves the stomach, heart, or skin.
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