Nursing Elites

1. Fat emulsions are frequently administered as a part of total parenteral nutrition. Which statement is true regarding fat emulsions?

• A. They have a high energy-to-fluid-volume ratio.
• B. Even though hypertonic, they are well tolerated.
• C. They are a basic solution due to the addition of sodium hydroxide (NaOH).
• D. The pH is alkaline, making them compatible with most medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is that fat emulsions have a high energy-to-fluid-volume ratio. Fat emulsions are formulated in 10%, 20%, and 30% solutions and supply 1.1, 2, and 3 kilocalories, respectively, for each milliliter. In comparison, a milliliter of 5% dextrose only supplies 0.17 kilocalories. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is false because fat emulsions are essentially pH neutral and isotonic, not hypertonic. Choice C is incorrect because fat emulsions are not basic solutions; they are essentially pH neutral. Choice D is incorrect as fat emulsions are not alkaline; they are pH neutral, making them compatible with most medications.

2. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
• B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
• C. A history of minimal physical activity
• D. A history of the client's food intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

3. Which of the following roommates would be most suitable for the client with myasthenia gravis?

• A. A client with hypothyroidism
• B. A client with Crohn's disease
• C. A client with pyelonephritis
• D. A client with bronchitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most suitable roommate for the client with myasthenia gravis is the client with hypothyroidism because they are quiet. A client with Crohn's disease (choice B) would be up to the bathroom frequently due to gastrointestinal issues, which could disturb the roommate with myasthenia gravis. A client with pyelonephritis (choice C) suffering from a kidney infection will need to urinate frequently, causing disturbances. A client with bronchitis (choice D) will be coughing, potentially disrupting the rest and quiet environment needed by a roommate with myasthenia gravis to manage their symptoms effectively.

4. A corporate executive works 60-80 hours a week. The client is experiencing some physical signs of stress. The nurse teaches the client biofeedback techniques. This is an example of which of the following health-promotion interventions?

• A. structure
• B. relaxation technique
• C. time management
• D. regular exercise

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'relaxation technique.' Biofeedback techniques are a form of relaxation technique that can help individuals quiet the mind, release tension, and counteract responses to stress. Teaching biofeedback techniques to the client aims to promote relaxation and stress management. Choice A, 'structure,' does not directly relate to teaching biofeedback techniques. Choice C, 'time management,' focuses on organizing tasks efficiently, not on relaxation techniques. Choice D, 'regular exercise,' although beneficial for overall health, is not specifically related to the teaching of biofeedback techniques for stress relief.

5. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

• A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
• B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
• C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
• D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Explanation: When discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) after long-term use, it is crucial to taper the dosage gradually to prevent withdrawal symptoms. The correct statement indicates an understanding of this by planning a structured decrease in dosage over time. Choice A is incorrect as drinking alcohol while decreasing Xanax can be dangerous and is not recommended. Choice B is incorrect as abruptly stopping Xanax is not safe and can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as expecting to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medication does not address the need for a gradual tapering process to avoid withdrawal symptoms.

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