Nursing Elites

1. Fat emulsions are frequently administered as a part of total parenteral nutrition. Which statement is true regarding fat emulsions?

• A. They have a high energy-to-fluid-volume ratio.
• B. Even though hypertonic, they are well tolerated.
• C. They are a basic solution due to the addition of sodium hydroxide (NaOH).
• D. The pH is alkaline, making them compatible with most medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is that fat emulsions have a high energy-to-fluid-volume ratio. Fat emulsions are formulated in 10%, 20%, and 30% solutions and supply 1.1, 2, and 3 kilocalories, respectively, for each milliliter. In comparison, a milliliter of 5% dextrose only supplies 0.17 kilocalories. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is false because fat emulsions are essentially pH neutral and isotonic, not hypertonic. Choice C is incorrect because fat emulsions are not basic solutions; they are essentially pH neutral. Choice D is incorrect as fat emulsions are not alkaline; they are pH neutral, making them compatible with most medications.

2. When assessing a client with glaucoma, a nurse expects which of the following findings?

• A. Complaints of double vision
• B. Complaints of halos around lights
• C. Intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg
• D. Soft globe on palpation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with glaucoma, a common finding is complaints of halos around lights. Other symptoms of glaucoma include loss of peripheral vision or blind spots, reddened sclera, firm globe, decreased accommodation, and occasional eye pain. Glaucoma may be asymptomatic until permanent damage to the optic nerve and retina occurs. Double vision is not a typical symptom of glaucoma. In terms of intraocular pressure, normal levels range from 10 to 21 mm Hg, making an intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg within the normal range. A soft globe on palpation is not a typical finding in glaucoma.

3. The best definition of communication is:

• A. the sending and receiving of messages.
• B. the effect of sending verbal messages.
• C. an ongoing, interactive form of transmitting transactions.
• D. the use of message variables to send information.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Communication is defined as an ongoing, interactive form of transmitting transactions. It involves a dynamic process of sending (encoding) and receiving (decoding) messages while being influenced by the experiences and perceptions of both the sender and receiver. This process is interactive and occurs within an environment, shaping individuals' self-concept, identity, and relationships. The correct answer captures the complexity and interactive nature of communication. Choice A, 'the sending and receiving of messages,' is too simplistic and does not encompass the interactive nature of communication. Choice B, 'the effect of sending verbal messages,' focuses solely on verbal communication and overlooks non-verbal forms. Choice D, 'the use of message variables to send information,' emphasizes technical aspects rather than the interactive and transactional nature of communication.

4. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
• B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
• C. A history of minimal physical activity
• D. A history of the client's food intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

5. The nurse is developing a care plan for a client with severe anxiety. An appropriate outcome for the client is that within 4 days the client should:

• A. Have decreased anxiety.
• B. Talk to the nurse for 10 minutes.
• C. Sit quietly for 30 minutes.
• D. Develop an adaptive coping mechanism.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When developing outcome criteria for a client with severe anxiety, it is crucial for the goals to be specific, measurable, and realistic. In this scenario, the most appropriate outcome is for the client to talk to the nurse for 10 minutes within 4 days. This goal is specific (talking for a defined duration), measurable (10 minutes), and realistic given the client's condition. Expecting a severely anxious client to sit quietly for 30 minutes is not realistic and may even exacerbate their anxiety. While developing an adaptive coping mechanism is important, it is a broader long-term goal and may not be achievable within the specified timeframe. Having decreased anxiety is a desirable outcome, but it lacks specificity and measurability, making it less suitable as an immediate goal.

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