NCLEX-PN
PN Nclex Questions 2024
1. To decrease a client's use of denial and increase the client's expression of feelings, what should the nurse do?
- A. Tell the client to stop using the defense mechanism of denial
- B. Positively reinforce each expression of feelings
- C. Instruct the client to express feelings
- D. Challenge the client each time denial is used
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate approach to decrease a client's use of denial and promote the expression of feelings is to positively reinforce each expression of feelings. This method helps the client feel supported and validated, encouraging them to continue expressing their emotions openly. Positively reinforcing the expression of feelings can help reduce the need for denial as the client learns that their emotions are acknowledged and accepted. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A of telling the client to stop using denial is too directive and may be ineffective. Instructing the client to express feelings (Choice C) lacks positive reinforcement, and challenging the client each time denial is used (Choice D) can create a confrontational environment that hinders therapeutic progress.
2. A client with schizophrenia says, 'I'm away for the day ... but don't think we should play "? or do we have feet of clay?' Which alteration in the client's speech does the nurse document?
- A. Neologism
- B. Word salad
- C. Clang association
- D. Associative looseness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Associative looseness.' In the provided speech, the client shows associative looseness by making loose connections between phrases without a clear logical link. Clang association involves rhyming words without regard for their meaning. Neologism refers to made-up words with specific meaning to the client, and word salad is a jumble of words that lack coherence either to the listener or the client. Understanding these speech patterns associated with schizophrenia is crucial in identifying the specific alteration in speech displayed by the client in this scenario.
3. A corporate executive works 60-80 hours a week. The client is experiencing some physical signs of stress. The nurse teaches the client biofeedback techniques. This is an example of which of the following health-promotion interventions?
- A. structure
- B. relaxation technique
- C. time management
- D. regular exercise
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'relaxation technique.' Biofeedback techniques are a form of relaxation technique that can help individuals quiet the mind, release tension, and counteract responses to stress. Teaching biofeedback techniques to the client aims to promote relaxation and stress management. Choice A, 'structure,' does not directly relate to teaching biofeedback techniques. Choice C, 'time management,' focuses on organizing tasks efficiently, not on relaxation techniques. Choice D, 'regular exercise,' although beneficial for overall health, is not specifically related to the teaching of biofeedback techniques for stress relief.
4. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?
- A. Atropine sulfate
- B. Furosemide
- C. Prostigmin
- D. Promethazine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.
5. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the central venous access device (CVAD) rather than through a peripheral IV line if the CVAD becomes infected?
- A. To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line
- B. To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein
- C. To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic
- D. To attempt to eliminate microorganisms in the catheter and prevent having to remove it
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected, administering antibiotics through the line is essential to attempt to eliminate microorganisms within the catheter. The goal is to prevent the necessity of removing the catheter, which might be required if the infection persists. Choice A, 'To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line,' is incorrect as the priority is addressing the catheter infection, not preventing issues with a peripheral line. Choice B, 'To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein,' is not relevant to the rationale for choosing the CVAD for antibiotic administration. Choice C, 'To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic,' is also incorrect as the main focus is managing the catheter-associated infection rather than allergy prevention.
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