NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. The client is scheduled for a pericentesis. Which instruction should be given to the client before the exam?
- A. “You will need to lie flat during the exam.”
- B. “You need to empty your bladder before the procedure.”
- C. “You will be asleep during the procedure.”
- D. “The doctor will inject a medication to treat your illness during the procedure.”
Correct answer: “You need to empty your bladder before the procedure.”
Rationale: The client scheduled for a pericentesis should be instructed to empty the bladder to prevent the risk of bladder puncture when the needle is inserted. A pericentesis involves removing fluid from the peritoneal cavity. The client is typically positioned sitting up or leaning over a table, making answer A incorrect. During a pericentesis, the client is usually awake, so answer C is incorrect. Medications are not commonly injected into the peritoneal cavity during this procedure, making answer D incorrect. However, it's important to note that the administration of medications during the procedure could vary based on specific circumstances.
2. A patient has recently been prescribed Norvasc. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?
- A. Hypotension and Angina
- B. Hypertension
- C. Lower extremity edema
- D. Peripheral sensory loss and SOB
Correct answer: Hypotension and Angina
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension and Angina.' Norvasc is a medication known to cause hypotension (low blood pressure) and angina (chest pain) as side effects. These side effects are important for the patient to watch out for as they can indicate potential issues related to the medication. Choice B ('Hypertension') is incorrect as Norvasc is actually used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C ('Lower extremity edema') is not a common side effect of Norvasc. Choice D ('Peripheral sensory loss and SOB') is not typically associated with Norvasc's side effects.
3. The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:
- A. scalding from hot bath water or spills
- B. contact with hot surfaces such as stoves and fireplaces
- C. contact with flammable liquids or gases resulting in flash burns
- D. sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure
Correct answer: sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure
Rationale: The most common type of first-degree burn in small children is sunburn, often due to lack of protection and overexposure to the sun. This type of burn highlights the importance of educating parents about using sunscreens and ensuring children are adequately protected from the sun's harmful rays. Choices A, B, and C describe scenarios that can lead to burns but are not the most common type of first-degree burn in small children, making them incorrect.
4. A graduate nurse hired to work in a medical unit of a hospital is attending an orientation session. The nurse educator, discussing care maps, asks the graduate nurse whether she understands how a care map is used. Which response indicates understanding?
- A. The care map outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge
- B. The care map is a plan that is used only by the nurse to provide client care
- C. The care map is a standard plan, rather than an individualized one, that is developed strictly by a nurse and used for a client with a particular diagnosis
- D. The care map is developed by a nurse and identifies nursing diagnoses
Correct answer: The care map outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A care map, also known as a critical pathway, outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge or the end of a treatment phase. It includes clinical assessments, treatments, dietary interventions, activity therapies, client education, and discharge planning. While it may identify nursing diagnoses, a care map is developed by all disciplines caring for the client type and is used by the interdisciplinary team, not just the nurse alone. Choice B is incorrect because a care map is not solely for the nurse but for the entire interdisciplinary team. Choice C is incorrect as care maps are individualized plans developed by the interdisciplinary team, not just by a nurse. Choice D is incorrect as a care map is not solely about nursing diagnoses but encompasses a comprehensive plan of care.
5. A pregnant client asks how she can prevent getting Group B Strep. What is the LPN’s best response?
- A. You cannot prevent getting Group B Strep; you can only treat it.
- B. You should have your partner wear a condom every time you have intercourse.
- C. You should be extra vigilant about hand-washing, especially in the third trimester.
- D. The Group B Strep vaccine is the only proven way to prevent the disease.
Correct answer: You cannot prevent getting Group B Strep; you can only treat it.
Rationale: The best response for the LPN to provide to a pregnant client concerned about preventing Group B Strep is that it cannot be prevented, only treated. Group B Strep is a normal flora found in the vagina, rectum, and intestines of about 25% of women and is not a sexually transmitted disease. Testing for Group B Strep is done in each pregnancy, usually around 35-37 weeks. If a woman tests positive, antibiotics are administered during labor to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Choice A is the correct answer as Group B Strep cannot be prevented but only treated. Choice B is incorrect; condom use does not prevent Group B Strep. Choice C is not the best response as hand-washing is important for general hygiene but does not specifically prevent Group B Strep. Choice D is incorrect as there is no vaccine available to prevent Group B Strep.
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