Nursing Elites

1. The women's health charge nurse is making assignments for the next shift. The unit is short one staff member and will receive a nurse from the medical-surgical unit. Which group of clients should she assign to the medical-surgical nurse?

• A. Total abdominal hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, client with breast reduction
• B. C-section planning discharge, post-partum infection, mastectomy
• C. Vaginal delivery of fetal demise, C-section with pneumonia, 32-week gestation with lymphoma
• D. 28-week gestation of bed rest, post-partum with HELLP syndrome, breast reconstruction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer includes clients who have undergone surgical procedures typically managed on a medical-surgical unit. Choice A consists of clients who have had elective surgical procedures such as hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, and breast reduction, which are commonly treated in a medical-surgical setting. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with various complications related to childbirth, fetal demise, pneumonia, gestational lymphoma, HELLP syndrome, and bed rest, which are more complex cases requiring specialized care beyond medical-surgical nursing.

2. When the nurse who was not promoted first read the memo and learned that the other nurse had received the promotion, she left the room in tears. This behavior is an example of:

• A. conversion.
• B. regression
• C. introjection.
• D. rationalization

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Crying is a regressive behavior. The ego returned to an earlier, comforting, and less-mature way of behaving in the face of disappointment. Regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development to cope with stress or conflict. In this scenario, the nurse regressed to a childlike state by crying when faced with the disappointment of not getting the promotion, demonstrating regression as a defense mechanism. Conversion involves transforming anxiety into a physical symptom. Introjection involves unconsciously identifying intensely with another person. Rationalization involves unconsciously creating acceptable explanations to justify unacceptable ideas, actions, or feelings. Therefore, the correct answer is regression as it aligns with the nurse's behavior of regressing to a childlike state by crying due to the disappointment of not receiving the promotion.

3. Which of the following describes the stages of domestic violence in an intimate relationship?

• A. happiness, crisis, angry outburst, intervention
• B. honeymoon period, escalation of stress, outburst, reconciliation
• C. acting out and making up
• D. peace and calm, angry outburst, peace and calm, denial

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'honeymoon period, escalation of stress, outburst, reconciliation.' A pattern of behavior known as the cycle of abuse involves these stages. It starts with a honeymoon phase, followed by a buildup of stress, an outburst which may involve violence, and then reconciliation. This cycle is commonly observed in domestic violence situations. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately represent the stages of domestic violence in intimate relationships. Choice A mixes positive and negative elements, while choice C simplifies the complex dynamics of domestic violence. Choice D repeats 'peace and calm' inappropriately and includes 'denial,' which is not typically a stage in the cycle of abuse.

4. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

5. The client is receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following drugs reverses the effects of heparin?

• A. Cyanocobalamin
• B. Protamine sulfate
• C. Streptokinase
• D. Sodium warfarin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its effects. Cyanocobalamin is a form of Vitamin B12 and is not used to reverse heparin effects. Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent that is used to dissolve blood clots, not to reverse heparin effects. Sodium warfarin is an anticoagulant, but it is not the antidote for heparin. Therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reverse the effects of heparin.

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