Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client in crisis, what should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Allowing the client to work through independent problem-solving.
• B. Completing an in-depth evaluation of stressors and responses to the situation.
• C. Focusing on immediate stress reduction.
• D. Recommending ongoing therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is in crisis, the nurse's priority is to focus on immediate stress reduction. Crisis intervention aims to stabilize the client in the present moment by addressing the most pressing issues. Allowing the client to work through independent problem-solving (Choice A) may not be appropriate during a crisis as they might need immediate support. Completing an in-depth evaluation of stressors (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority during a crisis. Recommending ongoing therapy (Choice D) may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on reducing the client's stress and stabilizing the situation.

2. A 12-year-old male is brought to his primary care provider to determine whether sexual abuse has occurred. The mother states, 'Because there is no permanent physical damage, he does not need any more treatment.' The nurse's response should be based on which of the following pieces of information?

• A. Male victims of sexual abuse can have long-term psychological problems.
• B. Survivors of male sexual abuse might become confused about their sexual identity.
• C. Unless treated, all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children.
• D. All children who have been sexually abused have the same needs, regardless of gender.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Male children are sexually abused nearly as often as female children. Perpetrators are usually men but can be women. Needs of male children who have been sexually abused might be different from the needs of female survivors. Male survivors might respond in anger, question their sexuality, use alcohol and other drugs, and might try to prove their masculinity by performing daring acts. It is crucial for the nurse to consider these potential outcomes, making choice B the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because male victims of sexual abuse can indeed have long-term psychological problems, so the nurse should be aware of this issue. Choice C is incorrect as not all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children, which is a misconception. Choice D is incorrect because the needs of children who have been sexually abused can vary based on various factors, including gender, so it is important to consider individual differences.

3. When planning care of a client who has been diagnosed with Amphetamine Abuse, the nurse should use the knowledge that:

• A. Amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses.
• B. Amphetamines have a low risk of tolerance or addiction.
• C. Amphetamines produce a 10-20-second rush followed by a 2-4-hour high.
• D. Addiction to barbiturates and amphetamines is rare because they have opposite effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses. Amphetamines cause the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from storage vesicles into the synapse, leading to increased stimulation. It is important to note that clear patterns of tolerance and withdrawal have not been described with amphetamines. Choice B is incorrect as prolonged or excessive use of amphetamines can lead to psychosis, indicating a potential for addiction. Choice C is incorrect as the duration of the effects of amphetamines is typically longer than 2-4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as addiction to amphetamines is not rare; in fact, drug cravings are common and can lead to relapse, indicating a significant risk of addiction.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is dying. While assessing the client for signs of impending death, the nurse observes the client for:

• A. elevated blood pressure.
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
• C. elevated pulse rate.
• D. decreased temperature.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are a pattern of breathing characterized by rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. This pattern is often associated with conditions like cardiac failure and can be a sign of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typically associated with the dying process. Decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death. Therefore, option B, Cheyne-Stokes respiration, is the correct choice when assessing a client for signs of impending death.

5. Following the change of shift report, when can or should the nurse alter or modify the plan?

• A. halfway through the shift
• B. at the end of the shift before handing over
• C. when needs change
• D. after the top-priority tasks have been completed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'when needs change.' The nurse should be flexible and adjust the plan as necessary when the needs of the patients change. This ensures that care is provided effectively and efficiently. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because altering the plan based on time intervals, solely at the end of the shift, or after completing top-priority tasks may not align with the current needs of the patients.

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