Nursing Elites

1. A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?

• A. "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."?
• B. "Often women become offended if asked about their safety in relationships."?
• C. "It is mandatory that all women be questioned about domestic violence."?
• D. "How would you feel to know that her partner is beating her and you didn't ask?"?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."? There is a well-documented correlation between vague symptoms like abdominal pain and battered woman syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to inquire about potential domestic violence when presented with such symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as studies show that women are not generally offended by appropriately phrased questions about their safety in relationships. While it is not mandatory to question all women about domestic violence, it is advisable to at least ask a screening question regarding safety. Choice D is inappropriate as it uses a shaming tactic, which is not constructive and may create a hostile work environment. It's important for healthcare professionals to approach sensitive topics like domestic violence with empathy and professionalism.

2. A twenty-one-year-old man suffered a concussion, and the MD ordered an MRI. The patient asks, 'Will they allow me to sit up during the MRI?' The correct response by the nurse should be:

• A. "I will have to talk to the doctor about letting you sit upright during the test."?
• B. "You will be positioned in the reverse Trendelenburg position to maximize the view of the brain."?
• C. "The radiologist will let you know."?
• D. "You will have to lie down on your back during the test."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the patient that they will have to lie down on their back during the MRI. This positioning is necessary for the scan to obtain accurate images of the brain. Choice A is incorrect because the decision on the positioning during the MRI is typically determined by the imaging protocol and not subject to negotiation during the test. Choice B is incorrect as the reverse Trendelenburg position is not commonly used during MRI scans. Choice C is incorrect because the radiologist does not usually make decisions on patient positioning during the MRI; it is predetermined by the imaging requirements.

3. What can the nurse instruct the mother of a teething 9-month-old infant to relieve discomfort?

• A. Rub the infant's gums with baby aspirin dissolved in water.
• B. Obtain an over-the-counter (OTC) topical medication for gum pain relief.
• C. Schedule an appointment with a dentist for a dental evaluation.
• D. Give the infant cool liquids or a Popsicle and hard foods such as dry toast.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teething in infants can cause discomfort, but it is a normal process. Symptoms may include nighttime awakening, daytime restlessness, excess drooling, and temporary loss of appetite. The recommended approach to relieve teething discomfort includes providing cool liquids, a Popsicle, or hard foods like dry toast for chewing. These items can help soothe the infant's gums. Rubbing the gums with baby aspirin dissolved in water is not recommended as it can be harmful. OTC topical medications are unnecessary for teething discomfort. Scheduling a dental evaluation is not required solely for teething. It's important to avoid home remedies like baby aspirin and opt for safer options like cool liquids. If necessary, acetaminophen (Tylenol) can be used under healthcare provider guidance to alleviate discomfort.

4. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a malignancy. The classification of the primary tumor is Tis. The nurse should plan care for a tumor:

• A. That can be assessed
• B. That is in situ
• C. With increasing lymph node involvement
• D. With distant metastasis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'That is in situ.' Cancer in situ means that the cancer is still localized to the primary site. Cancer is graded in terms of tumor, grade, node involvement, and metastasis. Answer A is incorrect because Tis indicates a tumor that is in situ and can be assessed. Answer C is incorrect because T indicates tumor, not node involvement. Answer D is incorrect because a tumor that is in situ is not metastasized.

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