NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?
- A. "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."?
- B. "Often women become offended if asked about their safety in relationships."?
- C. "It is mandatory that all women be questioned about domestic violence."?
- D. "How would you feel to know that her partner is beating her and you didn't ask?"?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."? There is a well-documented correlation between vague symptoms like abdominal pain and battered woman syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to inquire about potential domestic violence when presented with such symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as studies show that women are not generally offended by appropriately phrased questions about their safety in relationships. While it is not mandatory to question all women about domestic violence, it is advisable to at least ask a screening question regarding safety. Choice D is inappropriate as it uses a shaming tactic, which is not constructive and may create a hostile work environment. It's important for healthcare professionals to approach sensitive topics like domestic violence with empathy and professionalism.
2. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan).
- B. labetalol (Normodyne).
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
- D. thiothixene (Navane).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.
3. The client is scheduled for a pericentesis. Which instruction should be given to the client before the exam?
- A. "You will need to lie flat during the exam."?
- B. "You need to empty your bladder before the procedure."?
- C. "You will be asleep during the procedure."?
- D. "The doctor will inject a medication to treat your illness during the procedure."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client scheduled for a pericentesis should be instructed to empty the bladder to prevent the risk of bladder puncture when the needle is inserted. A pericentesis involves removing fluid from the peritoneal cavity. The client is typically positioned sitting up or leaning over a table, making answer A incorrect. During a pericentesis, the client is usually awake, so answer C is incorrect. Medications are not commonly injected into the peritoneal cavity during this procedure, making answer D incorrect. However, it's important to note that the administration of medications during the procedure could vary based on specific circumstances.
4. A client with schizophrenia says, 'I'm away for the day ... but don't think we should play "? or do we have feet of clay?' Which alteration in the client's speech does the nurse document?
- A. Neologism
- B. Word salad
- C. Clang association
- D. Associative looseness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Associative looseness.' In the provided speech, the client shows associative looseness by making loose connections between phrases without a clear logical link. Clang association involves rhyming words without regard for their meaning. Neologism refers to made-up words with specific meaning to the client, and word salad is a jumble of words that lack coherence either to the listener or the client. Understanding these speech patterns associated with schizophrenia is crucial in identifying the specific alteration in speech displayed by the client in this scenario.
5. Which of the following is not one of the three universal spiritual needs?
- A. meaning and purpose
- B. love and relatedness
- C. forgiveness
- D. God's permission
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The three universal spiritual needs are meaning and purpose, love and relatedness, and forgiveness. These needs are commonly recognized across various belief systems and cultures. While the concept of God may be central to many religions, 'God's permission' is not considered a universal spiritual need. Seeking 'God's permission' is more specific to certain religious practices rather than a universally acknowledged spiritual need. Therefore, the correct answer is 'God's permission.' Choices A, B, and C are correct as they align with the generally accepted universal spiritual needs.
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