NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?
- A. "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."?
- B. "Often women become offended if asked about their safety in relationships."?
- C. "It is mandatory that all women be questioned about domestic violence."?
- D. "How would you feel to know that her partner is beating her and you didn't ask?"?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."? There is a well-documented correlation between vague symptoms like abdominal pain and battered woman syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to inquire about potential domestic violence when presented with such symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as studies show that women are not generally offended by appropriately phrased questions about their safety in relationships. While it is not mandatory to question all women about domestic violence, it is advisable to at least ask a screening question regarding safety. Choice D is inappropriate as it uses a shaming tactic, which is not constructive and may create a hostile work environment. It's important for healthcare professionals to approach sensitive topics like domestic violence with empathy and professionalism.
2. A client arrives in the emergency room with a possible fractured femur. The nurse should anticipate an order for:
- A. Trendelenburg position
- B. Ice to the entire extremity
- C. Buck's traction
- D. An abduction pillow
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Buck's traction. This intervention is used to realign the fractured femur, reduce spasms, and alleviate pain. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is inappropriate for a femur fracture, making answer A incorrect. While ice may be used post-repair, applying it to the entire extremity is unnecessary, so answer B is wrong. An abduction pillow is typically employed following a total hip replacement, not for a fractured femur, rendering answer D incorrect.
3. A client with acute leukemia develops a low white blood cell count. In addition to the institution of isolation, the nurse should:
- A. Request that foods be provided in sealed single-serving packages
- B. Ask the client to wear a mask when visitors are present
- C. Prep IV sites with mild soap and water and alcohol
- D. Provide foods in sealed single-serving packages
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a client with acute leukemia and a low white blood cell count, preventing exposure to food contaminants is crucial due to immune suppression. Providing foods in sealed single-serving packages helps reduce the risk of contamination. Choice B is incorrect as it introduces the potential of infection from visitors. Choice A, suggesting disposable utensils, is not as effective as sealed containers in preventing food contamination. Choice C, using alcohol for prepping IV sites, is less suitable due to its drying effect and potential for skin breakdown, making sealed packages a better option for food safety.
4. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?
- A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
- B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
- C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
- D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.
5. A client with cancer develops xerostomia. The nurse can help alleviate the discomfort associated with xerostomia by:
- A. Offering hard candy
- B. Administering analgesic medications
- C. Splinting swollen joints
- D. Providing saliva substitute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Xerostomia is dry mouth, a common side effect in cancer patients. Providing a saliva substitute helps alleviate the discomfort associated with dry mouth by moistening the oral mucosa. Offering hard candy, as mentioned in choice A, can worsen xerostomia by increasing sugar content and potentially causing irritation. Administering analgesic medications, as in choice B, is not directly related to treating dry mouth. Splinting swollen joints, as in choice C, is irrelevant to xerostomia, which primarily affects the oral cavity.
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