Nursing Elites

1. A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?

• A. "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."?
• B. "Often women become offended if asked about their safety in relationships."?
• C. "It is mandatory that all women be questioned about domestic violence."?
• D. "How would you feel to know that her partner is beating her and you didn't ask?"?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."? There is a well-documented correlation between vague symptoms like abdominal pain and battered woman syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to inquire about potential domestic violence when presented with such symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as studies show that women are not generally offended by appropriately phrased questions about their safety in relationships. While it is not mandatory to question all women about domestic violence, it is advisable to at least ask a screening question regarding safety. Choice D is inappropriate as it uses a shaming tactic, which is not constructive and may create a hostile work environment. It's important for healthcare professionals to approach sensitive topics like domestic violence with empathy and professionalism.

2. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

3. The nurse is making initial rounds on a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. Which equipment should be kept at the bedside?

• A. A pair of forceps
• B. A torque wrench
• C. A pair of wire cutters
• D. A screwdriver

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A torque wrench is essential equipment to keep at the bedside for a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. This tool is used to tighten and loosen the screws of the crutch field tongs, allowing the nurse to adjust the pressure on the screws for proper support and alignment. A pair of forceps (choice A), wire cutters (choice C), and a screwdriver (choice D) are not required for managing crutch field tongs and, therefore, are incorrect choices in this scenario.

4. A client is taking hydrocodone (Vicodin) for chronic back pain. The client has required an increase in the dose and asks whether this means he is addicted to Vicodin. The nurse should base her reply on the knowledge that:

• A. the client's body has developed tolerance, requiring more drug to produce the same effect.
• B. the client is preoccupied with getting the drug and is experiencing loss of control, indicating drug dependence.
• C. addiction is the term used to describe physical dependence with withdrawal symptoms and tolerance.
• D. the client has a dual diagnosis of substance abuse and chronic back pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Drug tolerance is characterized by the ability to ingest a larger dose without adverse effects and decreased sensitivity to the substance. In this scenario, the client needing an increased dose of hydrocodone to achieve the same pain relief indicates tolerance developing, not addiction. Choice B is incorrect as it describes drug dependence, where the individual is preoccupied with the drug and has a loss of control. Choice C is incorrect because addiction involves psychological behaviors related to substance use, not just physical dependence with withdrawal symptoms and tolerance. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a dual diagnosis, which is the coexistence of substance abuse and psychiatric disorders, not the development of tolerance to a drug.

5. The nurse wishes to decrease a client's use of denial and increase the client's expression of feelings. To do this, the nurse should:

• A. tell the client to stop using the defense mechanism of denial.
• B. positively reinforce each expression of feelings.
• C. instruct the client to express feelings.
• D. challenge the client each time denial is used.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario provided, the nurse aims to reduce the client's use of denial and encourage the expression of feelings. Positive reinforcement for each expression of feelings is an effective approach to achieve this goal. By positively reinforcing the client's expression of feelings, the nurse encourages the desired behavior, making it more likely for the client to continue sharing their emotions. This approach creates a supportive and accepting environment for the client. In contrast, telling the client to stop using denial (Choice A) may create resistance and inhibit communication by putting pressure on the client. Instructing the client to express feelings (Choice C) is less effective as it lacks the element of reinforcement that is essential for behavior modification. Challenging the client each time denial is used (Choice D) may lead to defensiveness and hinder the therapeutic relationship, making it a less favorable option.

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