Nursing Elites

1. A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?

• A. "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."?
• B. "Often women become offended if asked about their safety in relationships."?
• C. "It is mandatory that all women be questioned about domestic violence."?
• D. "How would you feel to know that her partner is beating her and you didn't ask?"?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."? There is a well-documented correlation between vague symptoms like abdominal pain and battered woman syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to inquire about potential domestic violence when presented with such symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as studies show that women are not generally offended by appropriately phrased questions about their safety in relationships. While it is not mandatory to question all women about domestic violence, it is advisable to at least ask a screening question regarding safety. Choice D is inappropriate as it uses a shaming tactic, which is not constructive and may create a hostile work environment. It's important for healthcare professionals to approach sensitive topics like domestic violence with empathy and professionalism.

2. A client with schizophrenia says, 'I'm away for the day ... but don't think we should play "? or do we have feet of clay?' Which alteration in the client's speech does the nurse document?

• A. Neologism
• B. Word salad
• C. Clang association
• D. Associative looseness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Associative looseness.' In the provided speech, the client shows associative looseness by making loose connections between phrases without a clear logical link. Clang association involves rhyming words without regard for their meaning. Neologism refers to made-up words with specific meaning to the client, and word salad is a jumble of words that lack coherence either to the listener or the client. Understanding these speech patterns associated with schizophrenia is crucial in identifying the specific alteration in speech displayed by the client in this scenario.

3. Some drugs are excreted into bile and delivered to the intestines. Prior to elimination from the body, the drug might be absorbed. This process is known as:

• A. hepatic clearance.
• B. total clearance.
• C. enterohepatic cycling.
• D. first-pass effect.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'enterohepatic cycling.' This process involves drugs being excreted into bile, delivered to the intestines, reabsorbed into the circulation, and can prolong the drug's presence in the body. 'Hepatic clearance' (Choice A) refers to the amount of drug eliminated by the liver. 'Total clearance' (Choice B) is the sum of all types of clearance including renal, hepatic, and respiratory. 'First-pass effect' (Choice D) is the amount of drug absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized by the liver before entering circulation, reducing the amount of drug available for systemic circulation.

4. While assessing a client who is dying for signs of impending death, what should the nurse observe for?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
• C. Elevated pulse rate
• D. Decreased temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client for signs of impending death, the nurse should observe for Cheyne-Stokes respiration. This pattern involves rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep breathing to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. It is often associated with cardiac failure and can be a significant indicator of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typical signs of impending death; in fact, they may indicate other conditions. A decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death, as temperature changes can vary among individuals and may not always correlate with the dying process.

5. The new mother asks why her baby has lost weight since he was born. The best explanation of the weight loss is:

• A. The baby is dehydrated due to polyuria.
• B. The baby is hypoglycemic due to lack of glucose.
• C. The baby is allergic to the formula the mother is giving him.
• D. The baby can lose up to 10% of weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and initiation of breastfeeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After birth, newborns can lose weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and the initiation of breastfeeding. This weight loss is a normal and expected physiological process, and infants can lose up to 10% of their birth weight during this period. There is no indication of dehydration (polyuria), hypoglycemia (lack of glucose), or allergy to the formula as reasons for weight loss in newborns. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect. Answer D provides the most accurate explanation for the observed weight loss in the newborn.

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