a 32 year old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache abdominal pain and trouble sleeping in the past t
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Practice Questions 2024

1. A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."? There is a well-documented correlation between vague symptoms like abdominal pain and battered woman syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to inquire about potential domestic violence when presented with such symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as studies show that women are not generally offended by appropriately phrased questions about their safety in relationships. While it is not mandatory to question all women about domestic violence, it is advisable to at least ask a screening question regarding safety. Choice D is inappropriate as it uses a shaming tactic, which is not constructive and may create a hostile work environment. It's important for healthcare professionals to approach sensitive topics like domestic violence with empathy and professionalism.

2. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

3. If the client is receiving peritoneal dialysis and the dialysate returns cloudy, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When the dialysate returns cloudy, it could indicate the presence of infection, and sending a specimen to the lab for evaluation is crucial to determine the cause. Documenting the finding alone, as in choice A, may not provide enough information for proper intervention. Straining the dialysate, as in choice C, is not a standard practice and may not help identify the underlying issue. Obtaining a complete blood count, as in choice D, is not directly related to addressing cloudiness in the dialysate. However, the healthcare provider might order a white blood cell count to assess for infection.

4. The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alkylating agents, such as nitrogen mustards, are effective chemotherapeutic agents because they cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA. This cross-linking interferes with DNA replication and transcription, leading to cell death. Choice B is incorrect because alkylating agents have numerous side effects, including alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and myelosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because while nitrogen mustards are used to treat multiple types of cancer like chronic lymphocytic leukemia, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and breast and ovarian cancer, their effectiveness is primarily due to DNA cross-linkage. Choice D is incorrect because alkylating agents are non-cell-cycle-specific agents, meaning they can act on cells in any phase of the cell cycle, not just on cells that are actively dividing.

5. A corporate executive works 60-80 hours a week. The client is experiencing some physical signs of stress. The nurse teaches the client biofeedback techniques. This is an example of which of the following health-promotion interventions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'relaxation technique.' Biofeedback techniques are a form of relaxation technique that can help individuals quiet the mind, release tension, and counteract responses to stress. Teaching biofeedback techniques to the client aims to promote relaxation and stress management. Choice A, 'structure,' does not directly relate to teaching biofeedback techniques. Choice C, 'time management,' focuses on organizing tasks efficiently, not on relaxation techniques. Choice D, 'regular exercise,' although beneficial for overall health, is not specifically related to the teaching of biofeedback techniques for stress relief.

Similar Questions

An elderly client denies that abuse is occurring. Which of the following factors could be a barrier for the client to admit being a victim?
The healthcare provider recognizes that which of the following would be most appropriate to wear when providing direct care to a client with a cough?
A client with pancreatitis has been transferred to the intensive care unit. Which order would the nurse anticipate?
After the client discusses her relationship with her father, the nurse says, "Tell me whether I am understanding your relationship with your father. You feel dominated and controlled by him?"? This is an example of:
A primary belief of psychiatric mental health nursing is:

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses