a 32 year old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache abdominal pain and trouble sleeping in the past t
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Practice Questions 2024

1. A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."? There is a well-documented correlation between vague symptoms like abdominal pain and battered woman syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to inquire about potential domestic violence when presented with such symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as studies show that women are not generally offended by appropriately phrased questions about their safety in relationships. While it is not mandatory to question all women about domestic violence, it is advisable to at least ask a screening question regarding safety. Choice D is inappropriate as it uses a shaming tactic, which is not constructive and may create a hostile work environment. It's important for healthcare professionals to approach sensitive topics like domestic violence with empathy and professionalism.

2. Which task should not be performed by the licensed practical nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A licensed practical nurse should not initiate a blood transfusion. LPNs can assist with transfusions and verify ID numbers but should not be assigned to initiate the procedure. Inserting Foley catheters, discontinuing nasogastric tubes, and obtaining sputum specimens are within the scope of practice for LPNs. Therefore, options A, B, and C are tasks that LPNs can perform, making them incorrect choices.

3. James returns home from school angry and upset because his teacher gave him a low grade on an assignment. After returning home from school, he kicks the dog. This coping mechanism is known as:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Displacement is the transference of emotions, such as anger, to a substitute target that may be less threatening. In this scenario, James redirects his anger from the teacher to the dog. Denial is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality. Suppression is consciously putting aside unwanted thoughts or feelings. Fantasy involves imagining unrealistic scenarios. Therefore, in this case, the correct answer is displacement as James displaces his anger towards the dog.

4. What is a common characteristic of a batterer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that a batterer is typically someone who was physically or psychologically abused. Research shows that many individuals who engage in abusive behavior report a history of being abused themselves. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While it is possible for a batterer to have grown up in a loving, secure home, been an only child, or acknowledge their anger issues, the most common factor associated with becoming a batterer is a history of being abused.

5. Which laboratory test would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: AST, choice A, would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction as it is not specific for this condition. Troponin, CK-MB, and myoglobin (choices B, C, and D) are more specific markers for myocardial infarction. Troponin is considered the gold standard due to its cardiac specificity. CK-MB is also specific to the heart, and its isoenzyme levels elevate post-heart damage. Myoglobin, although elevated in myocardial infarction, is not as specific as troponin and CK-MB and can also increase in conditions like burns and muscle trauma. Therefore, AST is the least effective choice for diagnosing a myocardial infarction.

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