a 32 year old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache abdominal pain and trouble sleeping in the past t
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Practice Questions 2024

1. A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."? There is a well-documented correlation between vague symptoms like abdominal pain and battered woman syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to inquire about potential domestic violence when presented with such symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as studies show that women are not generally offended by appropriately phrased questions about their safety in relationships. While it is not mandatory to question all women about domestic violence, it is advisable to at least ask a screening question regarding safety. Choice D is inappropriate as it uses a shaming tactic, which is not constructive and may create a hostile work environment. It's important for healthcare professionals to approach sensitive topics like domestic violence with empathy and professionalism.

2. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.

3. The physician has prescribed tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) 10mg bid. The nurse should teach the client to refrain from eating foods containing tyramine because it may cause:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client eats foods high in tyramine, he might experience malignant hypertension. Tyramine is found in cheese, sour cream, Chianti wine, sherry, beer, pickled herring, liver, canned figs, raisins, bananas, avocados, chocolate, soy sauce, fava beans, and yeast. These episodes are treated with Regitine, an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated to the question: Hyperthermia is excessive body temperature, melanoma is a type of skin cancer, and urinary retention is the inability to empty the bladder.

4. An elderly client is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has surgery followed by chemotherapy with fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What should the nurse do if she notices crystals and cloudiness in the IV medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crystals in the solution are not normal and should not be administered to the client. Discarding the solution and ordering a new bag is the correct action to ensure the client's safety. Warming the solution, as suggested in answer B, will not resolve the issue of crystals and cloudiness, which could potentially harm the client. Continuing the infusion, as in answer C, could pose a risk to the client due to the presence of abnormal substances. Answer D, discontinuing the medication, would typically require a doctor's order and should be done after discarding the contaminated solution.

5. A twenty-one-year-old man suffered a concussion, and the MD ordered an MRI. The patient asks, 'Will they allow me to sit up during the MRI?' The correct response by the nurse should be:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the patient that they will have to lie down on their back during the MRI. This positioning is necessary for the scan to obtain accurate images of the brain. Choice A is incorrect because the decision on the positioning during the MRI is typically determined by the imaging protocol and not subject to negotiation during the test. Choice B is incorrect as the reverse Trendelenburg position is not commonly used during MRI scans. Choice C is incorrect because the radiologist does not usually make decisions on patient positioning during the MRI; it is predetermined by the imaging requirements.

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