Nursing Elites

1. Before administering Theodur to a 10-year-old being treated for asthma, the nurse should check the:

• A. Urinary output
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Pulse
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the pulse. Theodur is a bronchodilator used in asthma treatment, and one of the side effects is tachycardia (increased heart rate). Therefore, it is essential to assess the pulse rate before administering Theodur to monitor for any potential tachycardia. Checking urinary output (Choice A), blood pressure (Choice B), and temperature (Choice D) are not directly related to the immediate side effects of bronchodilators like Theodur in this context, making them unnecessary assessments.

2. Mrs. Owens is the 81-year-old mother of Jonathan, who is 54 years old. Jonathan has had schizophrenia since he was 16 years old. Which of Mrs. Owens's concerns is likely to predominate?

• A. "Will my retirement funds outlast me?"?
• B. "Who will handle my funeral arrangements?"?
• C. "What will become of Jonathan when I am gone?"?
• D. "How can I communicate effectively with Jonathan's physician?"?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most prominent concern for Mrs. Owens is likely what will happen to her son, Jonathan, after she passes away. While retirement fund sustainability is important, it is not likely to be her primary concern. Funeral arrangements, although significant, are secondary to the welfare of her son with schizophrenia. The question of how to communicate with Jonathan's physician is less likely to be a predominant concern since Mrs. Owens has likely already addressed this issue over the 38 years of managing her son's care.

3. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

• A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
• B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
• C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
• D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

4. The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?

• A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice
• B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine
• C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night
• D. Telling the client to take the medication if night sweats occur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine. Rifampin can change the color of the urine and body fluid. Teaching the client about these changes is important as the client might think this is a complication. Answer A is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take rifampin with juice. Answer C is incorrect because rifampin should be taken at consistent times, not necessarily before going to bed. Answer D is incorrect as rifampin should be taken regularly as prescribed, not based on symptoms like night sweats.

5. Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:

• A. A cephalohematoma
• B. Molding
• C. Subdural hematoma
• D. Caput succedaneum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.

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