Nursing Elites

1. A nurse notes that an elderly client suddenly does not keep appointments and is not wearing appropriate clothing. Which statement by the client raises the suspicion of financial abuse?

• A. "I am having difficulty paying for this new antibiotic the physician prescribed."?
• B. "I am a little short on cash since my daughter moved in to help me."?
• C. "I have not felt like shopping since the weather has gotten worse."?
• D. "People do not realize how difficult it is to make ends meet on a fixed income."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I am a little short on cash since my daughter moved in to help me."? This statement raises suspicion of financial abuse as it suggests a recent change in financial circumstances after the daughter moved in. Financial abuse in elderly clients can be indicated by sudden unexplained financial deficits or changes, such as difficulty paying for necessities despite previously being able to do so. Choices A, C, and D do not directly imply a recent financial change due to external factors, making them less indicative of potential financial abuse. Option B is the most concerning statement that warrants further investigation into possible financial exploitation.

2. After a client undergoes a left lower lobe lung resection for lung cancer, which post-operative measure would typically be included in the plan?

• A. Closed chest drainage
• B. A tracheostomy
• C. A mediastinal tube
• D. Percussion vibration and drainage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a lung resection, such as the removal of the left lower lobe for lung cancer, closed chest drainage is a common post-operative measure to help drain any excess air or fluid from the chest cavity. A tracheostomy is not typically needed for this procedure, so choice B is incorrect. Similarly, a mediastinal tube is not routinely inserted following a left lower lobe lung resection, making choice C incorrect. Percussion vibration and drainage are not indicated for this type of surgery, so choice D is also incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is closed chest drainage.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

4. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "You have nothing to worry about. You are in a safe place. Try to relax."?
• B. "Has anything happened recently or in the past that might have triggered these feelings?"?
• C. "We have given you a medication that helps to decrease feelings of anxiety."?
• D. "Take some deep breaths and try to calm down."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.

5. How should Lasix be administered to prevent hypotension?

• A. By administering it over 1-2 minutes
• B. By hanging it IV piggyback
• C. With normal saline only
• D. By administering it through a venous access device

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lasix should be administered over 1-2 minutes at approximately 1mL per minute to prevent hypotension. This slow administration helps to reduce the risk of adverse effects such as sudden drops in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because Lasix does not need to be hung IV piggyback, choice C is incorrect as Lasix administration does not require it to be mixed with normal saline only, and choice D is incorrect as Lasix does not have to be specifically administered through a venous access device (VAD) to prevent hypotension.

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