Nursing Elites

1. What is an effective intervention for a client diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?

• A. Discussing the repetitive actions.
• B. Insisting the client not perform the repetitive act.
• C. Informing the client that the act is not necessary.
• D. Encouraging daily exercise.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An effective intervention for a client diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is encouraging daily exercise. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is an anxiety disorder, and exercise can help release emotional energy, limit the time available for maladaptive behaviors, and direct the client's attention outward. Discussing the repetitive actions (choice A) may reinforce the behavior by providing attention to it. Insisting the client not to perform the repetitive act (choice B) can increase anxiety and resistance, as abruptly stopping the behavior may be challenging. Informing the client that the act is not necessary (choice C) may not address the underlying anxiety and could invalidate the client's experiences, leading to increased distress. Encouraging daily exercise is a proactive intervention that can help manage symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder by addressing core features of the disorder and promoting overall well-being.

2. A client with cancer develops xerostomia. The nurse can help alleviate the discomfort associated with xerostomia by:

• A. Offering hard candy
• B. Administering analgesic medications
• C. Splinting swollen joints
• D. Providing saliva substitute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Xerostomia is dry mouth, a common side effect in cancer patients. Providing a saliva substitute helps alleviate the discomfort associated with dry mouth by moistening the oral mucosa. Offering hard candy, as mentioned in choice A, can worsen xerostomia by increasing sugar content and potentially causing irritation. Administering analgesic medications, as in choice B, is not directly related to treating dry mouth. Splinting swollen joints, as in choice C, is irrelevant to xerostomia, which primarily affects the oral cavity.

3. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach. The nurse should be particularly alert for:

• A. Nasal congestion
• B. Abdominal tenderness
• C. Muscle tetany
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach, nasal congestion is a significant concern as it can further obstruct the airway. This can be due to mucosal swelling, bleeding, or edema resulting from the surgery. Nasal congestion requires immediate attention to prevent airway compromise. Abdominal tenderness, muscle tetany, and oliguria are not directly associated with the pituitary gland or the transsphenoidal approach, making them incorrect choices. Abdominal tenderness is more common in abdominal or pelvic surgeries due to intra-abdominal issues. Muscle tetany is related to electrolyte imbalances or neuromuscular disorders, not specific to pituitary surgery. Oliguria is a concern in renal-related conditions, not typically in pituitary tumor surgeries.

4. The child with seizure disorder is being treated with Dilantin (phenytoin). Which of the following statements by the patient's mother indicates to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a side effect of Dilantin therapy?

• A. "She is very irritable lately."?
• B. "She sleeps quite a bit of the time."?
• C. "Her gums look too big for her teeth."?
• D. "She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is '"Her gums look too big for her teeth."?' Hyperplasia of the gums is a known side effect associated with Dilantin therapy. Option A, '"She is very irritable lately,"?' is not a typical side effect of Dilantin. Option B, '"She sleeps quite a bit of the time,"?' is a common side effect of Dilantin but not specific to gum hyperplasia. Option D, '"She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months,"?' is not typically associated with Dilantin therapy and is unrelated to the question.

5. A home health nurse is making preparations for morning visits. Which one of the following clients should the nurse visit first?

• A. A client with brain attack (stroke) receiving tube feedings
• B. A client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea
• C. A client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago
• D. A client with Parkinson’s disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea should be seen first as airway management is a priority in nursing care. This client's symptoms indicate potential respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Choices A, C, and D involve clients who are more stable and do not present with urgent or acute conditions that require immediate intervention. Choice A with a client receiving tube feedings for a stroke may require attention, but the urgency of addressing potential respiratory distress in choice B takes precedence. Choice C, a client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago, unless presenting with acute distress, does not necessitate immediate attention. Choice D, a client with Parkinson's disease, is usually a chronic condition that does not typically require immediate intervention for the described scenario.

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