NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. What is an effective intervention for a client diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
- A. Discussing the repetitive actions.
- B. Insisting the client not perform the repetitive act.
- C. Informing the client that the act is not necessary.
- D. Encouraging daily exercise.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An effective intervention for a client diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is encouraging daily exercise. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is an anxiety disorder, and exercise can help release emotional energy, limit the time available for maladaptive behaviors, and direct the client's attention outward. Discussing the repetitive actions (choice A) may reinforce the behavior by providing attention to it. Insisting the client not to perform the repetitive act (choice B) can increase anxiety and resistance, as abruptly stopping the behavior may be challenging. Informing the client that the act is not necessary (choice C) may not address the underlying anxiety and could invalidate the client's experiences, leading to increased distress. Encouraging daily exercise is a proactive intervention that can help manage symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder by addressing core features of the disorder and promoting overall well-being.
2. In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's
- A. feelings about what has been described.
- B. thoughts about what has been described.
- C. possible solutions to the problem.
- D. intent in sharing the description.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse follows a structured approach, starting with encouraging the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's thoughts about what has been described. This step helps gather more assessment data and understand how the client interprets the situation. Asking about feelings, exploring possible solutions, and understanding the client's intent in sharing the description are more complex processes that come later in the assessment. Therefore, the correct next step after describing behaviors and situations is to inquire about the client's thoughts.
3. A client is admitted with Ewing's sarcoma. Which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor's location?
- A. Hemiplegia
- B. Aphasia
- C. Nausea
- D. Bone pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ewing's sarcoma is a type of bone cancer that primarily affects the bones. Therefore, bone pain would be an expected symptom due to this tumor's location. Hemiplegia, which refers to paralysis on one side of the body, Aphasia, a language disorder, and Nausea are not typical symptoms of Ewing's sarcoma. While Nausea is a common symptom in various conditions, it is not specific to bone cancer like Ewing's sarcoma. Therefore, Bone pain is the most likely symptom associated with Ewing's sarcoma.
4. The physician has ordered sodium warfarin (Coumadin) for the client with thrombophlebitis. The order should be entered to administer the medication at:
- A. 900
- B. 1200
- C. 1700
- D. 2100
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sodium warfarin is typically administered in the late afternoon, around 1700 hours. This timing allows for accurate bleeding times to be drawn in the morning. Administering it at 0900 (choice A) would not align with this schedule and may affect the monitoring of bleeding times. Choice B (1200) is midday, which is not the recommended time for sodium warfarin administration. Choice D (2100) is in the evening, which is also not ideal. Therefore, the correct time for administering sodium warfarin is 1700 (choice C).
5. The licensed practical nurse assigned to the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam?
- A. A gravida IV para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
- B. A gravida I para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
- C. A gravida II para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery
- D. A gravida IV para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The mothers in answers A, B, and C all require RhoGam as they are Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby or have experienced a stillbirth delivery, making them candidates for RhoGam injection. The mother in answer D is the only one who does not require Rhogam because she is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby, eliminating the need for RhoGam administration.
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