Nursing Elites

1. The client is admitted with a period of unobserved loss of consciousness and now has an EEG scheduled this morning. What should the nurse implement?

• A. Keep NPO and hold medication.
• B. Hold sedatives, but allow the client to have breakfast and give other medicines.
• C. Administer medications, but hold anticonvulsants.
• D. Give additional fluids and some caffeine prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prior to an EEG, it is essential for the client to eat to prevent a drop in blood sugar levels. The nurse should hold sedatives but allow the client to have breakfast and administer other necessary medications. Holding sedatives is crucial to ensure accurate EEG results, while providing breakfast helps maintain stable blood sugar levels. Administering other medications, excluding sedatives, is important for the client's overall care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because keeping the client NPO and holding medications, administering medications but holding anticonvulsants, and giving additional fluids and caffeine are not appropriate actions before an EEG.

2. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?

• A. Progesterone
• B. Estrogen
• C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
• D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.

3. What are the side effects of first-generation over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamines like diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and hydroxyzine (Atarax) in infants and children?

• A. Reye's syndrome.
• B. cholinergic effects.
• C. paradoxical CNS stimulation.
• D. nausea and diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is paradoxical CNS stimulation. First-generation OTC antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and hydroxyzine, can lead to paradoxical CNS stimulation in infants and children. This phenomenon is characterized by symptoms like excitement, euphoria, restlessness, and confusion, rather than the expected sedative effect. Due to this unexpected response, these antihistamines are used less frequently in pediatric populations. Reye's syndrome is a rare systemic response to a virus and is not a side effect of antihistamines. First-generation OTC antihistamines do not typically exhibit cholinergic effects. Nausea and diarrhea are uncommon side effects of these antihistamines and are less commonly observed than paradoxical CNS stimulation.

4. If your patient is acutely psychotic, which of the following independent nursing interventions would not be appropriate?

• A. Conveying calmness through one-on-one interaction
• B. Recognizing and managing your own feelings to prevent escalation of the patient's anxiety level
• C. Encouraging client participation in group therapy
• D. Listening and identifying causes of their behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is acutely psychotic, they may not be able to effectively participate in group therapy due to their altered mental state. Group settings can be overwhelming and may exacerbate the patient's symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate interventions. Choice A is correct as providing calmness through one-on-one interaction can be beneficial in establishing trust and reducing anxiety. Choice B is also important as recognizing and managing the nurse's feelings can prevent further escalation of the patient's symptoms. Choice D is relevant as listening and identifying causes of the patient's behavior can aid in understanding and providing appropriate care tailored to the patient's needs.

5. The physician wants to know if a client is tolerating their total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory tests is likely to be ordered?

• A. triglyceride level
• B. liver function tests
• C. a glucose tolerance test
• D. a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The liver is crucial in processing nutrients and medications received through total parenteral nutrition. Liver function tests assess various enzymes produced by the liver, including prothrombin time/partial prothrombin time, serum glutamic oxaloacetic and pyruvic transaminases, gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, albumin, and alkaline phosphatase. Monitoring these enzymes can help determine if the liver is functioning properly to metabolize the nutrients from TPN. Triglyceride levels (Choice A) primarily evaluate the body's ability to clear fats, not specifically related to TPN tolerance. A glucose tolerance test (Choice C) is used to diagnose diabetes by measuring blood glucose levels after ingesting a glucose-rich solution, not directly related to TPN tolerance. A complete blood count (Choice D) assesses blood components such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but does not provide specific information about TPN tolerance.

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