Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is screening patients for various vaccines. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy?

• A. Diphtheria
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Mumps
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Mumps. The Mumps vaccine, along with the Rubella vaccine, is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of affecting the developing fetus. Diphtheria, Hepatitis B, and Tetanus vaccines are considered safe during pregnancy and are often recommended to protect both the pregnant individual and the developing fetus. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

2. A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?

• A. COPD clients are stimulated to breathe by hypoxia.
• B. COPD clients depend on a low carbon dioxide level.
• C. COPD clients tend to retain hydrogen ions if they are given high doses of oxygen.
• D. COPD clients thrive on a high oxygen level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with COPD and chronic respiratory acidosis, they are compensating for low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Hypoxia acts as the main stimulus to breathe in individuals with chronic hypercapnia. When oxygen is administered, it can decrease the respiratory drive by eliminating the hypoxic drive and reducing the stimulus to breathe. Therefore, delivering oxygen at 1 L/min via nasal cannula helps prevent respiratory depression by maintaining the hypoxic drive to breathe. The other options are incorrect: COPD clients do not depend on a low carbon dioxide level as they are chronically hypercapnic, they do not retain hydrogen ions with high oxygen doses, and they do not thrive on a high oxygen level.

3. A person who had a left CVA and right lower extremity hemiparesis is being instructed by a nurse to use a quad cane. Which of the following is the most appropriate gait sequence?

• A. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
• B. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.
• C. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
• D. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct gait sequence for a person with left CVA and right lower extremity hemiparesis using a quad cane is to place the cane in the patient's strong upper extremity, which is the left upper extremity in this case. The correct sequence should be right lower extremity followed by left upper extremity, as this pattern mimics a normal gait pattern. Therefore, Choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the proper gait sequence for this specific patient's condition. The cane should be placed in the strong upper extremity, and the affected lower extremity should move first to provide stability and support, which is essential in this situation.

4. Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?

• A. anemia
• B. edema
• C. painless vaginal bleeding
• D. fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.

5. Which statement best describes electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluid?

• A. There is a greater concentration of sodium in extracellular fluid and potassium in intracellular fluid
• B. There is an equal concentration of sodium and potassium in extracellular fluid
• C. There is a greater concentration of potassium in extracellular fluid and sodium in intracellular fluid
• D. There is an equal concentration of sodium and potassium between intracellular and extracellular fluid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Electrolytes are distributed unequally between intracellular and extracellular fluids. Sodium concentration is higher in extracellular fluid, while potassium concentration is higher in intracellular fluid. Therefore, the correct answer is 'There is a greater concentration of sodium in extracellular fluid and potassium in intracellular fluid.' Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the typical distribution of sodium and potassium between intracellular and extracellular fluid.

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