NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. In which age group does the highest incidence of child abuse occur?
- A. Birth-3 years old
- B. 4-6 years old
- C. 6-10 years old
- D. More than 10 years old
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Birth-3 years old.' Children between birth and 3 years of age have the highest rates of victimization (at 16 per 1,000 children). This age group is most vulnerable due to their dependency and inability to report or protect themselves effectively. Child abuse can occur at any age, but statistics show that infants and toddlers are at the highest risk due to their developmental stage and reliance on caregivers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while child abuse can happen at any age, the prevalence is highest among children in the 0-3 age group.
2. What type of relief behavior is Ashley using to cope with emotional conflict?
- A. acting out
- B. somatizing
- C. withdrawal
- D. problem-solving
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ashley is somatizing by experiencing emotional conflict as physical symptoms associated with severe anxiety. Somatizing involves converting emotions into physical symptoms. Acting out involves behaviors like anger, crying, and verbal abuse, not physical symptoms. Withdrawal is when one withdraws psychic energy in response to anxiety, not converting emotions into physical symptoms. Problem-solving occurs when anxiety is identified and the underlying need is addressed, not converting emotions into physical symptoms.
3. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?
- A. a client with renal impairment
- B. a client with hypertension
- C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
- D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.
4. A client visits the clinic after the death of a parent. Which statement made by the client's sister signifies abnormal grieving?
- A. "My sister still has episodes of crying, and it's been 3 months since Daddy died."?
- B. "Sally seems to have forgotten the bad things that Daddy did in his lifetime."?
- C. "She really had a hard time after Daddy's funeral. She said that she had a sense of longing."?
- D. "Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abnormal grieving is often characterized by a lack of sadness or acknowledgment of the loss. In this scenario, the statement 'Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened' indicates abnormal grieving as it suggests a lack of emotional response or denial of the death. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C all describe normal grieving reactions: crying episodes, selective memory of the deceased, and feelings of longing after the funeral. These responses are typical in the grieving process. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, highlighting a potential abnormality in the grieving process.
5. A client has rectal cancer and is scheduled for an abdominal perineal resection. What should be the priority nursing care during the post-op period?
- A. Teaching perineal wound care techniques
- B. Monitoring electrolyte levels
- C. Encouraging early ambulation
- D. Facilitating perineal wound drainage
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing care during the post-op period for a client who underwent an abdominal perineal resection is to facilitate perineal wound drainage. This is crucial for preventing infection of the surgical site and promoting healing. Teaching perineal wound care techniques, as in choice A, is more appropriate than ileostomy care in this scenario. While monitoring electrolyte levels is important, it is not the priority compared to ensuring proper wound drainage, making choice B less crucial. Encouraging early ambulation, as in choice C, is beneficial but not as critical as facilitating wound drainage immediately post-op.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access