Nursing Elites

1. In which age group does the highest incidence of child abuse occur?

• A. Birth-3 years old
• B. 4-6 years old
• C. 6-10 years old
• D. More than 10 years old

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Birth-3 years old.' Children between birth and 3 years of age have the highest rates of victimization (at 16 per 1,000 children). This age group is most vulnerable due to their dependency and inability to report or protect themselves effectively. Child abuse can occur at any age, but statistics show that infants and toddlers are at the highest risk due to their developmental stage and reliance on caregivers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while child abuse can happen at any age, the prevalence is highest among children in the 0-3 age group.

2. The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they:

• A. cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA.
• B. have few, if any, side effects.
• C. are used to treat multiple types of cancer.
• D. are cell-cycle-specific agents.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alkylating agents, such as nitrogen mustards, are effective chemotherapeutic agents because they cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA. This cross-linking interferes with DNA replication and transcription, leading to cell death. Choice B is incorrect because alkylating agents have numerous side effects, including alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and myelosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because while nitrogen mustards are used to treat multiple types of cancer like chronic lymphocytic leukemia, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and breast and ovarian cancer, their effectiveness is primarily due to DNA cross-linkage. Choice D is incorrect because alkylating agents are non-cell-cycle-specific agents, meaning they can act on cells in any phase of the cell cycle, not just on cells that are actively dividing.

3. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "You have nothing to worry about. You are in a safe place. Try to relax."?
• B. "Has anything happened recently or in the past that might have triggered these feelings?"?
• C. "We have given you a medication that helps to decrease feelings of anxiety."?
• D. "Take some deep breaths and try to calm down."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.

4. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

5. A client with pancreatitis has been transferred to the intensive care unit. Which order would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Blood pressure monitoring every 15 minutes
• B. Insertion of a Levine tube
• C. Continuous cardiac monitoring
• D. Administration of pain medication every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with pancreatitis who frequently experiences nausea and vomiting, insertion of a Levine tube is often anticipated to decompress the stomach and rest the bowel, helping to alleviate symptoms. This intervention is crucial in managing the gastrointestinal symptoms associated with pancreatitis. Blood pressure monitoring every 15 minutes may be necessary in some cases, but it is not a routine order for pancreatitis, making option A less likely. Continuous cardiac monitoring could be required based on the individual's condition, but it is not typically the first priority in pancreatitis management, so option C is not the most anticipated order. While pain medication administration is essential for managing discomfort, the priority in this scenario, especially considering the symptoms of nausea and vomiting, would be decompression with a Levine tube to address gastrointestinal issues, making option D less likely.

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