NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. In which age group does the highest incidence of child abuse occur?
- A. Birth-3 years old
- B. 4-6 years old
- C. 6-10 years old
- D. More than 10 years old
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Birth-3 years old.' Children between birth and 3 years of age have the highest rates of victimization (at 16 per 1,000 children). This age group is most vulnerable due to their dependency and inability to report or protect themselves effectively. Child abuse can occur at any age, but statistics show that infants and toddlers are at the highest risk due to their developmental stage and reliance on caregivers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while child abuse can happen at any age, the prevalence is highest among children in the 0-3 age group.
2. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?
- A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
- B. Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics.
- C. Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together.
- D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so the client should use an alternate method of birth control.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When antibiotics and oral contraceptives are taken together, the effectiveness of the oral contraceptives can be reduced, increasing the risk of pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to advise the client to use an alternate method of birth control to prevent unintended pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no evidence to suggest that oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of tetracycline, cause nausea, or result in toxicity when taken with antibiotics.
3. The client with schizophrenia has become disruptive and requires seclusion. Which staff member can institute seclusion?
- A. The security guard
- B. The registered nurse
- C. The licensed practical nurse
- D. The nursing assistant
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The registered nurse is the correct choice to institute seclusion for a client with schizophrenia. In healthcare settings, only a registered nurse or a physician can legally initiate seclusion. The security guard, licensed practical nurse, and nursing assistant do not have the authority to carry out this action. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory value might indicate a serious side effect of this drug?
- A. Uric acid of 5 mg/dL
- B. Hematocrit of 33%
- C. WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter
- D. Platelets 150,000 per cubic millimeter
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) can suppress the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in the white blood cell count. A laboratory value of WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter indicates a serious side effect of the drug. Choices A and D are within normal limits, while choice B is at the lower limit of normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.
5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?
- A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
- B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
- C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
- D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.
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