the client has an order for an iv piggyback of ceftriaxone 750mg in 50ml d5w to run over 30 minutes what is the appropriate drip rate
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions

1. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

2. A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.

3. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.

4. A client who is immobilized secondary to traction is complaining of constipation. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be ordered?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Colace. Colace is a stool softener that helps relieve constipation by drawing more water into the bowel, making the stool softer and easier to pass. This is beneficial for an immobilized client as it can help prevent constipation due to decreased mobility. Options A, B, and C (Advil, Anasaid, Clinocil) are not indicated for constipation relief. Advil and Anasaid are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs used for pain relief, while Clinocil is a fictional medication.

5. During a health assessment interview, the client tells the nurse that she has some vaginal drainage. The client is concerned that it may indicate a sexually transmitted infection (STI). Which statement should the nurse make to the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: If the client reports having vaginal drainage and concerns about a possible STI, it is essential for the nurse to gather more information about the discharge. Asking about the color of the discharge helps in determining its characteristics, which can be crucial in identifying potential causes. The color, consistency, odor, and associated symptoms can provide valuable insights into the underlying issue. Statements A and B are relevant questions but not as immediate or specific to addressing the client's concern about the discharge. Statement C dismisses the client's worries and does not encourage further assessment, which is not appropriate in this context.

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