Nursing Elites

1. What is most likely to impact the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia?

• A. immobility
• B. altered growth and development
• C. hemarthrosis
• D. altered family processes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Altered Family Processes play a significant role in impacting the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia. Infants are highly perceptive of their caregivers' responses, and any changes in family dynamics due to the diagnosis can affect the infant's sense of security and trust, influencing their body image and self-perception. Immobility, while a long-term effect of hemophilia, is not an immediate impact on body image. Altered growth and development would not have manifested immediately post-diagnosis. Hemarthrosis, characterized by bleeding into joint spaces, is a hallmark of hemophilia but does not directly influence body image in the immediate aftermath of a new diagnosis.

2. When performing an abdominal assessment, what is the correct order of the tasks?

• A. inspect, percuss, palpate, auscultate
• B. inspect, palpate, percuss, auscultate
• C. inspect, auscultate, percuss, palpate
• D. inspect, palpate, auscultate, percuss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct order of tasks when performing an abdominal assessment is to first inspect the abdomen visually, then auscultate to assess bowel sounds without altering them, followed by percussing to assess the presence of tympany or dullness, and finally palpating to feel for any tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Placing palpation or percussion before auscultation, as in choices A, B, and D, can affect the bowel sounds and examination findings, making them incorrect sequences.

3. The client is being discharged with a prescription for an inhaled glucocorticoid for asthma. Which of the following statements indicates additional education is needed prior to discharge?

• A. "I will hold my breath for 10 seconds after each puff."?
• B. "I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water."?
• C. "I will wait at least one minute between each puff."?
• D. "I will take this medication daily even if I am not having symptoms."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water.' After using an inhaled glucocorticoid, it is essential to wait for 5 minutes and then gargle water to remove any residue from the mouth, which can reduce the risk of developing thrush, a fungal infection. Choice A is correct as holding the breath for 10 seconds after each puff helps the medication reach deep into the lungs. Choice C is also correct as waiting at least one minute between puffs ensures proper delivery of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because it is important to take the medication daily as prescribed to control asthma symptoms, even if the person is not experiencing any at that moment.

4. If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?

• A. retrograde ejaculation
• B. decreased plasma testosterone
• C. hypertrophy of testicles
• D. state of euphoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.

5. The LPN is taking care of a client with a documented allergy to Penicillin. After rounds, the LPN notices that the client has an order for Cefazolin. Which of the following actions would be the least appropriate?

• A. The LPN clarifies the severity of the Penicillin allergy.
• B. The LPN discusses the order with the care team prior to administering Cefazolin.
• C. The LPN administers all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin.
• D. The LPN monitors the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is administered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least appropriate action is for the LPN to administer all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin. The LPN should always consider the client's documented allergy to Penicillin seriously. It is crucial to discuss the order with the care team before administering Cefazolin to ensure patient safety. Administering a medication that could potentially cause harm due to a documented allergy is unsafe practice. While monitoring the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is important, it should not precede clarification with the care team regarding the allergy and the appropriateness of the medication. Therefore, withholding the Cefazolin is the most appropriate action in this scenario.

Similar Questions