Nursing Elites

1. A nurse monitoring a newborn infant notes that the infant's respirations are 40 breaths/min. On the basis of this finding, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Contacting the registered nurse
• B. Documenting the findings
• C. Wrapping an extra blanket around the infant
• D. Placing the infant in an oxygen tent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal respiratory rate of a newborn infant is 30 to 60 breaths/min, with an average of 40. Since the infant's respiratory rate falls within the normal range, the most appropriate action for the nurse is to document the findings. Contacting the registered nurse, placing the infant in an oxygen tent, or wrapping an extra blanket around the infant are unnecessary actions as the respiratory rate is normal. Documenting the findings is important to provide a record of the assessment and serve as a baseline for future comparisons if needed.

2. Which of the following is an example of an extended care facility?

• A. Home health agency
• B. Suicide prevention center
• C. State-owned psychiatric hospital
• D. Nursing facility

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An extended care facility typically provides long-term care for individuals who require continuous assistance with activities of daily living. A nursing facility fits this description as it offers skilled nursing care and assistance with daily activities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a home health agency provides care in the patient's home, a suicide prevention center focuses on mental health crisis intervention, and a state-owned psychiatric hospital offers mental health treatment, none of which are synonymous with extended care facilities.

3. A nurse is reading the report from the registered nurse for an initial home visit to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The client was recently discharged from the hospital. Which type of database does the nurse read that contains this information from the client?

• A. Episodic
• B. Follow-up
• C. Emergency
• D. Complete

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Complete.' A complete database includes a full health history and physical examination, providing a comprehensive overview of the client's current and past health status. This type of database establishes a baseline for future assessments, making it essential for the nurse's initial home visit to understand the client's health needs thoroughly post-hospital discharge. It is typically gathered in primary care settings like clinics, private practices, college health services, women's health care agencies, visiting nurse agencies, or community health agencies. An episodic database focuses on a specific short-term issue or body system, which is not comprehensive enough for the initial home visit after hospital discharge. A follow-up database is used to monitor a known problem at regular intervals, not suitable for an initial assessment. An emergency database is swiftly collected during urgent situations, often while lifesaving measures are being carried out, and is not relevant for a post-hospital discharge home visit.

4. What is the primary force in sex education in a child's life?

• A. school nurse
• B. peers
• C. parents
• D. media

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Parents are the primary force in sex education in a child's life. Parents play a central role in shaping a child's understanding of sex from an early age. They provide continuous guidance, values, and information about sex and relationships. While the school nurse is involved in formal sex education and counseling within the school setting, parents have the most direct and significant impact on a child's sex education. Peers become more influential during adolescence, but their information may not always be accurate or appropriate. The media also exert significant influence on children's perceptions of sex through various forms of entertainment like movies, TV shows, and video games, but parents remain the primary educators on this subject.

5. Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to developing heartburn as a result of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

• A. lettuce
• B. eggs
• C. chocolate
• D. butterscotch

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is chocolate. Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Lettuce, eggs, and butterscotch do not affect LES pressure and are less likely to trigger heartburn in individuals with GERD. Therefore, clients who are prone to developing heartburn due to GERD should avoid consuming chocolate to manage their symptoms effectively.

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