a client is pregnant for the sixth time she tells the nurse that she has had three elective rst trimester abortions and that she has a son who was bor
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions

1. A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.

2. Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Scurvy is indeed associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C. Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, marasmus is due to severe malnutrition leading to wasting, and kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition.

3. How does the family carry out its health care functions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Families play a crucial role in providing preventive health care to their members at home. This includes activities such as promoting healthy lifestyles, ensuring vaccinations, scheduling regular check-ups, and intervening early when health issues arise. Therefore, the correct answer is that the family provides preventive health care to its members at home. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because families are expected to actively engage in preventive health care practices rather than providing very little preventive care, solely paying for health services, or making hospitalization decisions. The focus is on the proactive role of families in maintaining the health of their members.

4. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

5. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

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