Nursing Elites

1. A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:

• A. Gravida 2, para 6
• B. Gravida 6, para 2
• C. Gravida 3, para 6
• D. Gravida 2, para 2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.

2. During a well-baby examination, the nurse measures the head circumference, and it is the same as the chest circumference. On the basis of this measurement, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Document these measurements in the infant's health care record.
• B. Tell the mother that the infant is growing faster than expected.
• C. Suggest to the health care provider that a skull x-ray be performed.
• D. Report the presence of hydrocephalus to the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The head circumference growth rate during the first year is approximately 0.4 inches (1 cm) per month. By 10 to 12 months of age, the infant's head and chest circumferences are equal. In this case, where the head circumference matches the chest circumference, it is a normal finding in infants around 10-12 months. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to document these measurements in the infant's health care record. Suspecting hydrocephalus or suggesting a skull x-ray would be premature and not indicated based on this measurement. Similarly, telling the mother that the infant is growing faster than expected is not accurate and could cause unnecessary concern.

3. A nurse is preparing to screen a client's vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?

• A. Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both eyes together
• B. Assesses both eyes together, then assesses the right and left eyes separately
• C. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the largest line on the chart
• D. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the line that can be read 200 feet away by someone with unimpaired vision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client's eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.

4. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.

5. A client with an ileus is placed on intestinal tube suction. Which of the following electrolytes is lost with intestinal suction?

• A. calcium
• B. magnesium
• C. potassium
• D. sodium chloride

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is sodium chloride. Duodenal intestinal fluid is rich in potassium (K+), sodium (Na+), and bicarbonate. When suctioning is used to remove excess fluids due to ileus, it results in the loss of sodium chloride (NaCl) leading to decreased sodium (Na+) levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcium, magnesium, and potassium are not typically lost in significant amounts through intestinal tube suction in the context of treating ileus.

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