Nursing Elites

1. What is the best nursing diagnosis for a client with newly diagnosed Diabetes Mellitus?

• A. Impaired Skin Integrity
• B. Knowledge Deficit: New Diabetes Diagnosis
• C. Alteration in Nutrition: More than Body Requirements
• D. Fluid Volume Deficit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Knowledge Deficit: New Diabetes Diagnosis.' Newly diagnosed diabetics require education on their disease, medications, glucose testing, insulin injections, foot care, and sick-day plans. Choices A and D aim to prevent issues that do not currently exist for the client. Choice C, 'Alteration in Nutrition: More than Body Requirements,' is not the priority diagnosis for a newly diagnosed diabetic. While nutritional adjustments may be required for type I or type II diabetes, providing knowledge and education takes precedence at this stage.

2. In Parkinson's disease, a client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is known as:

• A. Akinesia.
• B. Dyskinesia.
• C. Chorea.
• D. Dystonia.

Correct answer: C.

Rationale: In Parkinson's disease, the client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is termed dyskinesia. Dyskinesia refers to the impairment of the ability to execute voluntary muscle movements. Akinesia, on the other hand, refers to the absence or lack of voluntary movement. Chorea is characterized by involuntary, rapid, irregular movements. Dystonia involves sustained muscle contractions resulting in abnormal postures or twisting movements. Therefore, dyskinesia is the specific term used for the described difficulty in Parkinson's disease.

3. The emergency department charge nurse is reviewing the clients triaged in the last 30 minutes. The nurse is required to obtain a social service consult from which of the following clients?

• A. A 6-year-old who drank some diluted bleach.
• B. A 10-year-old who suffered burns in a house fire.
• C. A 12-year-old who fractured his arm in a fight at school.
• D. A 12-month-old without any oral intake for the last 12 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For children under 7 years, most states have laws that mandate reporting certain situations to social services or child protection, such as ingestions of toxic substances, fractures, suspected neglect, or abuse, and burns. In this scenario, the 6-year-old who drank diluted bleach falls under the category that requires a social service consult. The other choices involve injuries or conditions that may warrant medical attention but do not necessarily mandate a social service consult based on age-related legal requirements.

4. When auscultating breath sounds, the nurse auscultates over the following locations:

• A. Trachea and lateral areas of thoracic cage
• B. Anterior and posterior aspects of all lung fields
• C. The mid section as well as the lateral section of the lungs
• D. The mid-clavicular to mid-axillary lines comparing side to side

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anterior and posterior aspects of all lung fields. When auscultating breath sounds, it is essential to listen to the front (anterior) and back (posterior) aspects of all lung fields. This comprehensive approach allows for a thorough assessment of breath sounds throughout the lungs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is too limited as it only focuses on the trachea and lateral areas, not covering all lung fields. Choice C is also too limited, referring to specific sections of the lungs (mid section and lateral section). Choice D is incorrect as it suggests comparing specific lines on the chest (mid-clavicular to mid-axillary), which is not a standard practice for auscultating breath sounds.

5. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Effective Heparin therapy should halt the process of intravascular coagulation, leading to increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, an increased fibrinogen level indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy. While increased platelet count and decreased bleeding are positive outcomes, the specific indicator for Heparin therapy response is the increase in fibrinogen level. Decreased fibrin split products would also be a positive response, but an increase in fibrinogen directly reflects the impact of Heparin therapy.

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