NCLEX-PN
Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023
1. A 28-year-old male has a diagnosis of AIDS. The patient has had a two-year history of AIDS. The most likely cognitive deficits include which of the following?
- A. Disorientation
- B. Sensory changes
- C. Inability to produce sound
- D. Hearing deficits
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In individuals with AIDS, cognitive deficits commonly manifest as confusion and disorientation, making choice A, 'Disorientation,' the correct answer. Sensory changes (choice B) and hearing deficits (choice D) are more related to sensory processing rather than cognitive impairment. 'Inability to produce sound' (choice C) is more indicative of a speech or language deficit rather than a cognitive impairment typically seen in AIDS patients.
2. What is most important for the healthcare professional to do prior to initiating peritoneal dialysis?
- A. Aspirate to check placement
- B. Ensure the client voids
- C. Irrigate the catheter to maintain patency
- D. Warm the fluids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to warm the fluids. Warming the dialysis fluids is crucial before initiating peritoneal dialysis to prevent abdominal discomfort and promote vasodilation, which helps in achieving good exchange in the peritoneum. Aspirating to check placement (Choice A) is not typically necessary before initiating peritoneal dialysis. Ensuring the client voids (Choice B) is not directly related to the procedure of peritoneal dialysis. Irrigating the catheter to maintain patency (Choice C) is usually done as part of routine care but is not specifically required prior to initiating peritoneal dialysis. Therefore, the most important action to take before starting peritoneal dialysis is to warm the fluids.
3. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?
- A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
- B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
- C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
- D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.
4. The nurse observes a nursing assistant performing AM care for a client with a new leg cast. Which action by the assistant will the nurse intervene?
- A. Lifting the affected leg with the palms of the hands
- B. Covering the affected leg with a blanket to avoid chills
- C. Placing plastic over the groin prior to bathing
- D. Elevating the casted leg on two pillows
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to intervene when the assistant covers the affected leg with a blanket to avoid chills. A new cast should not be covered to allow the heat from the cast to evaporate, preventing complications. Lifting the affected leg with the palms of the hands is appropriate for proper handling. Placing plastic over the groin prior to bathing is a standard practice to protect the client's privacy and maintain hygiene. Elevating the casted leg on two pillows helps reduce swelling and promote circulation, making it a suitable action.
5. One week ago, a client was involved in a motor vehicle crash (MVC) and was brought to the Emergency Department (ED). In the emergency department, the client received two stitches to the forehead and was sent home. Today, the client's spouse notes that the client 'acts like he is drunk' and cannot control his right foot and arm. The nurse will suspect?
- A. Meningitis
- B. Absence seizure
- C. Subdural hematoma
- D. Meniere's disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yes! The nurse will suspect a subdural hematoma. In this case, the client's presentation of acting intoxicated and experiencing loss of motor control in the right foot and arm is indicative of an acute subdural hematoma. This condition can occur after a head injury with a slow venous bleed, where symptoms may not show until compensation mechanisms are overwhelmed. Meningitis (choice A) usually presents with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. Absence seizure (choice B) is characterized by brief periods of unconsciousness without convulsions. Meniere's disease (choice D) manifests with symptoms like vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus, which do not match the client's current symptoms.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access