if your patient is acutely psychotic which of the following independent nursing interventions would not be appropriate
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. If your patient is acutely psychotic, which of the following independent nursing interventions would not be appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is acutely psychotic, they may not be able to effectively participate in group therapy due to their altered mental state. Group settings can be overwhelming and may exacerbate the patient's symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate interventions. Choice A is correct as providing calmness through one-on-one interaction can be beneficial in establishing trust and reducing anxiety. Choice B is also important as recognizing and managing the nurse's feelings can prevent further escalation of the patient's symptoms. Choice D is relevant as listening and identifying causes of the patient's behavior can aid in understanding and providing appropriate care tailored to the patient's needs.

2. Which of the following needs immediate medical attention and emergency intervention? The client who:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is considered a medical emergency. The respiratory system is severely compromised, and venous return to the heart is affected. The mediastinal shift is to the unaffected side, indicating a critical situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. This condition can rapidly progress to a life-threatening state, necessitating prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D do not present with life-threatening conditions requiring emergency intervention. Choice A mentions symptoms of pleurisy, which may be painful but not immediately life-threatening. Choice B describes symptoms of bronchitis, which may require medical attention but not of an emergent nature. Choice D reflects a common complaint in asthma but does not suggest an immediate life-threatening situation unless severe respiratory distress is present.

3. After a left heart catheterization (LHC), a client complains of severe foot pain on the side of the femoral stick. The nurse notes pulselessness, pallor, and a cold extremity. What should the nurse's next action be?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to notify the physician immediately (stat). The client's symptoms of foot pain, pulselessness, pallor, and cold extremity suggest a potential vascular complication, such as arterial occlusion. Prompt notification of the physician is crucial as this condition requires urgent intervention to restore blood flow and prevent tissue damage. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice A) without physician evaluation could be harmful as the underlying cause needs to be determined first. Warming the room and re-assessing (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Increasing IV fluids (Choice C) is unlikely to address the urgent vascular issue indicated by the symptoms described.

4. The client has been taking divalproex (Depakote) for the management of bipolar disorder. The nurse should give priority to monitoring which laboratory test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Monitoring ALT levels is crucial when a patient is taking divalproex (Depakote) due to the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Elevated ALT levels indicate liver damage or disorders, which can be a side effect of Depakote. Serum glucose (choice B) is not the priority for monitoring in this case, as the medication does not directly affect glucose levels. Serum creatinine (choice C) is not the most relevant test to monitor for Depakote use; it primarily assesses kidney function. Serum electrolytes (choice D) are important but do not take precedence over monitoring ALT levels when a patient is on Depakote.

5. When assessing a client in the Emergency Department whose membranes have ruptured, the nurse notes that the fluid is a greenish color. What is the cause of this greenish coloration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: meconium. Greenish amniotic fluid passed when the fetus is in a cephalic (head) presentation might indicate fetal distress. A fetus in the breech presentation passes meconium due to compression on the intestinal tract. Choice A, blood, is incorrect as blood in the amniotic fluid would present as a different color. Choice C, hydramnios, refers to an excess of amniotic fluid and would not cause the greenish coloration. Choice D, caput, is swelling of a newborn's scalp and is not related to the color of the amniotic fluid.

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