Nursing Elites

1. If your patient is acutely psychotic, which of the following independent nursing interventions would not be appropriate?

• A. Conveying calmness through one-on-one interaction
• B. Recognizing and managing your own feelings to prevent escalation of the patient's anxiety level
• C. Encouraging client participation in group therapy
• D. Listening and identifying causes of their behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is acutely psychotic, they may not be able to effectively participate in group therapy due to their altered mental state. Group settings can be overwhelming and may exacerbate the patient's symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate interventions. Choice A is correct as providing calmness through one-on-one interaction can be beneficial in establishing trust and reducing anxiety. Choice B is also important as recognizing and managing the nurse's feelings can prevent further escalation of the patient's symptoms. Choice D is relevant as listening and identifying causes of the patient's behavior can aid in understanding and providing appropriate care tailored to the patient's needs.

2. To determine the standards of care for the institution, the nurse should consult?

• A. Organizational Chart
• B. Personnel policies
• C. Policies and procedure manual
• D. Job descriptions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the 'Policies and procedure manual.' This manual outlines the policies and procedures that govern patient care within the institution, including the standards of care that healthcare providers are expected to follow. Consulting the policies and procedure manual ensures that the nurse is adhering to the established guidelines and protocols. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although they are important documents within an institution, they do not specifically define the standards of care for patient management. The organizational chart illustrates the hierarchy of the institution, personnel policies outline rules related to employees, and job descriptions detail specific roles and responsibilities, none of which directly define patient care standards.

3. The client with a history of advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) had conventional gallbladder surgery 2 days previously. Which intervention has priority for preventing respiratory complications?

• A. Incentive spirometry every 1 to 2 hours.
• B. Coughing and deep breathing every 1 to 2 hours.
• C. Getting the client out of bed 4 times daily as ordered by the physician.
• D. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute according to the physician's order.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority intervention for preventing respiratory complications in a client with advanced COPD who underwent gallbladder surgery is to get the client out of bed 4 times daily. This helps prevent pooling of secretions in the lungs and promotes better lung expansion. Incentive spirometry, coughing, and deep breathing are essential interventions; however, they should be performed more frequently, ideally every 1 to 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours or 4 times daily. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute could potentially decrease the client's respiratory drive, which is not the priority in this case.

4. A mother who has never breastfed a child before is having trouble getting the baby to latch on to the breast. The baby has lost 3% of its birth weight within the first 2 days of life. The best statement is:

• A. The baby will eventually take to the breast.
• B. I can prepare a bottle if you want to try that.
• C. A small amount of weight loss in the first few days is normal.
• D. I can arrange for the charge nurse to come and talk to you about breastfeeding.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A small amount of weight loss in the first few days is normal.' It is important to reassure the mother that a small amount of weight loss, such as 5-10% of birth weight, in the first few days of life is considered normal for newborns. This reassurance helps alleviate the mother's concerns. Option A is incorrect because it does not address the concern about weight loss; it focuses more on the baby eventually latching on. Option B is not recommended as the first solution for breastfeeding issues, as introducing a bottle early on may lead to nipple confusion. Option D involves escalating the situation to the charge nurse when it can be addressed by providing appropriate information and support directly, making it less necessary in this scenario where reassurance and education are key.

5. A patient has suffered a left CVA and developed severe hemiparesis resulting in a loss of mobility. The nurse notices on assessment that an area over the patient's left elbow appears as non-blanchable erythema, and the skin is intact. The nurse should score the patient as having which of the following?

• A. Stage I pressure ulcer
• B. Stage II pressure ulcer
• C. Stage III pressure ulcer
• D. Stage IV pressure ulcer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema with the skin intact is characteristic of a Stage I pressure ulcer. At this stage, the skin is not broken, but there is localized redness that does not blanch when pressed. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss, Stage III pressure ulcers have full-thickness skin loss, and Stage IV pressure ulcers extend to deeper tissues, including muscle and bone. In this case, the non-blanchable erythema with intact skin aligns with the characteristics of a Stage I pressure ulcer.

Similar Questions