Nursing Elites

1. Teaching the client with gonorrhea how to prevent reinfection and further spread is an example of

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. primary health care prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. This type of prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease by early detection and treatment. In the case of gonorrhea, teaching the client how to prevent reinfection and further spread falls under secondary prevention because it aims to reduce the prevalence and morbidity of the disease. Choice A (primary prevention) involves measures to prevent the disease from occurring in the first place, such as vaccination. Choice C (tertiary prevention) focuses on managing the long-term consequences of a disease to prevent complications. Choice D (primary health care prevention) is not a recognized term in prevention strategies.

2. A nurse assesses an 83-year-old female's venous ulcer for the second time that is located near the right medial malleolus. The wound is exhibiting purulent drainage, and the patient has limited mobility in her home. Which of the following is the best course of action?

• A. Encourage warm water soaks to the right foot.
• B. Notify the case manager of the purulent drainage.
• C. Determine the patient's pulse in the right ankle.
• D. Recommend increased activity to reduce the purulent drainage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct course of action is to encourage warm water soaks to the right foot. This can help promote wound healing and alleviate discomfort. Before recommending increased activity or notifying additional team members, it is crucial to assess arterial blood flow by determining the patient's pulse in the right ankle. Poor arterial blood flow could worsen the condition, making increased activity inappropriate. While notifying the case manager of purulent drainage is important, addressing the wound care directly should be the primary focus at this stage.

3. When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the PN should emphasize:

• A. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance.
• B. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent opportunistic infection.
• C. Therapy should not be interrupted for one day each month to prevent toxicity.
• D. Therapy should not be interrupted for one week every three months to prevent toxicity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for HIV, it is crucial to emphasize that therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance. HIV mutates rapidly, and any interruption can lead to the emergence of resistant strains, compromising treatment effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the virus in check with anti-retrovirals helps the client's immune system fight off opportunistic infections. Choices C and D are incorrect because therapy should not be interrupted for any reason. If toxicity occurs, the healthcare provider may adjust the treatment regimen by prescribing alternative anti-retroviral drugs.

4. A client receives a cervical intracavity radium implant as part of her therapy. A common side effect of a cervical implant is:

• A. creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.
• B. stomatitis.
• C. constipation.
• D. xerostomia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.' This side effect persists for 1 to 2 months after the removal of a cervical implant. Diarrhea, not constipation, is usually a side effect of cervical implants. Stomatitis and xerostomia are local side effects of radiation to the mouth, not associated with cervical implants. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

5. The nurse is caring for a client complaining of intense headaches with increasing pain for the past one month. An MRI is ordered. In reviewing the client's information, which piece of information is of concern?

• A. Allergy to shellfish
• B. Has a cardiac pacemaker
• C. A diabetic
• D. No IV access

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Has a cardiac pacemaker.' If a client with a cardiac pacemaker undergoes an MRI, the magnetic field can interfere with the pacemaker's function, leading to serious complications or even death. It is crucial to ensure that the pacemaker is compatible with MRI imaging or to consider alternative imaging modalities. The other choices, such as 'Allergy to shellfish,' 'A diabetic,' and 'No IV access,' are not direct contraindications for an MRI scan and do not pose the same level of risk as having a cardiac pacemaker.

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