which symptom is the client who self administered an overdose of acetaminophen most likely to exhibit
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. Which symptom is the client who self-administered an overdose of acetaminophen most likely to exhibit?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client self-administers an overdose of acetaminophen, the liver is primarily affected. Jaundiced conjunctiva, which is yellowing of the eyes, is a common symptom of liver damage. Pink frothy sputum is typically associated with conditions like pulmonary edema, not acetaminophen overdose. Seizure activity is not a common symptom of acetaminophen overdose but can be seen in other toxicities. Diaphoresis and fever are more generalized symptoms and not specific to acetaminophen overdose.

2. When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, what precaution should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering intravenous electrolyte solutions, preventing the infiltration of calcium is crucial to avoid tissue necrosis and sloughing, making choice C the correct answer. Choice A is revised to 'Infuse hypertonic solutions cautiously' because hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is corrected to 'Mix no more than 60 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid' as exceeding this limit can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is modified to 'Monitor the client's digitalis dosage for adjustments due to IV calcium' as it is essential to monitor the digitalis dosage for potential adjustments when IV calcium is administered; however, this choice is incorrect here as it inaccurately suggests adjusting the digitalis dosage due to IV calcium, which could lead to harmful effects.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's serum glucose levels. Which of the following scenarios would indicate abnormal serum glucose values for a 30-year-old male?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 55 mg/dL. The standard range for serum glucose levels is typically 60-115 mg/dL. A serum glucose level of 55 mg/dL falls below this range, indicating hypoglycemia. Options A, C, and D are within the standard range for serum glucose levels and would not be considered abnormal for a 30-year-old male.

4. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.

5. Which of the following microorganisms is easily transmitted from client to client on the hands of healthcare workers?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus microorganisms are ubiquitous and easily transmitted by healthcare workers who fail to conduct routine hand washing between clients. Staphylococcus aureus can reside on the skin and be transferred from one client to another if proper hand hygiene is not practiced. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is mainly transmitted through the airborne route, clostridium tetani is usually acquired through exposure to soil or dirt contaminated with tetanus spores, and human immunodeficiency virus is not easily transmitted through casual contact or on the hands of healthcare workers.

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