NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Which symptom is the client who self-administered an overdose of acetaminophen most likely to exhibit?
- A. Pink frothy sputum
- B. Seizure activity
- C. Jaundiced conjunctiva
- D. Diaphoresis and fever
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client self-administers an overdose of acetaminophen, the liver is primarily affected. Jaundiced conjunctiva, which is yellowing of the eyes, is a common symptom of liver damage. Pink frothy sputum is typically associated with conditions like pulmonary edema, not acetaminophen overdose. Seizure activity is not a common symptom of acetaminophen overdose but can be seen in other toxicities. Diaphoresis and fever are more generalized symptoms and not specific to acetaminophen overdose.
2. Which action by a graduate nurse would require the charge nurse to intervene?
- A. Walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering
- B. Putting on a surgical mask, gown, and cap before entering the operating room
- C. Wearing a surgical mask into the holding area
- D. Wearing scrubs from home into the nursing station
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering. In healthcare settings, it is crucial to adhere to infection control measures, which include wearing appropriate attire to prevent the spread of pathogens. Walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering violates these infection control protocols, necessitating immediate intervention by the charge nurse. Choices B and C are incorrect because putting on surgical attire before entering the operating room and wearing a surgical mask into the holding area are both standard practices that promote patient safety and infection control. Choice D is also incorrect as wearing scrubs from home into the nursing station, while not ideal, is not a violation that warrants immediate intervention compared to breaching infection control protocols near sensitive areas like the operating room.
3. Ten-year-old Jackie is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever. She relates a history of 'a sore throat about a month ago.' Bed rest with bathroom privileges is prescribed. Which of the following nursing assessments should be given the highest priority when assessing Jackie's condition?
- A. her response to hospitalization
- B. the presence of a macular rash on her trunk
- C. her cardiac status
- D. the presence of polyarthritis and joint pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring Jackie's cardiac status is of the highest priority in a patient with rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can lead to permanent cardiac damage, making it crucial to closely monitor the heart. Assessing for signs of carditis, such as murmurs or other cardiac symptoms, is essential. The second priority is evaluating joint symptoms for the presence of polyarthritis and pain, which are common manifestations of rheumatic fever. While assessing Jackie's response to hospitalization is important for her emotional well-being, it is not the highest priority. The presence of a macular rash, although relevant, is not as high a priority as monitoring cardiac status or assessing joint symptoms.
4. A client is admitted to the floor with vomiting and diarrhea for three days. She is receiving IV fluids at 200cc/hr via pump. A priority action for the nurse would be:
- A. Obtaining Intake and Output.
- B. Frequent lung assessments.
- C. Vital signs every shift.
- D. Monitoring the IV site for infiltration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct priority action for the nurse would be monitoring the IV site for infiltration. The client is receiving IV fluids at a rapid rate, making it crucial to ensure that the IV site is intact and not causing any complications like infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage. While frequent lung assessments are important for detecting signs of fluid overload, in this case, ensuring the IV site's integrity takes precedence. Obtaining Intake and Output is relevant but not the priority over monitoring the IV site. Vital signs are essential, but given the situation, the immediate concern is the IV site's condition to prevent complications.
5. A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with Emphysema about the disease process. Which of the following statements best explains the problems associated with emphysema and could be adapted for use in the nurse's discussion with the client?
- A. Hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi caused by an inflammatory response leads to wheezing and tightness in the chest.
- B. Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.
- C. Vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema cause a chronic cough and sputum production.
- D. Chloride is not being transported properly, producing excess absorption of water and sodium, and thick viscous mucus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is: 'Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.' Emphysema is a breakdown of the elastin and fiber network of the alveoli where the alveoli enlarge or the walls are destroyed. This alveolar destruction leads to the formation of larger-than-normal air spaces. Emphysema is one of a group of pulmonary diseases of a chronic nature characterized by increased resistance to airflow; the entity is part of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Choice A is incorrect because emphysema is not primarily characterized by hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi causing wheezing and tightness in the chest. Choice C is incorrect because vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema are not the primary mechanisms involved in emphysema, and they do not directly lead to chronic cough and sputum production. Choice D is incorrect because emphysema is not related to chloride transport issues and thick viscous mucus production.
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