NCLEX-PN
Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023
1. A patient has a history of cardiac arrhythmia. A nurse has been ordered to give 2 units of blood to this patient. The nurse should take which of the following actions?
- A. Administer pain medication to the patient.
- B. Inform the patient's family about the procedure in person.
- C. Decrease the temperature of the blood to be given.
- D. Increase the temperature of the blood to be given.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In patients with a history of cardiac arrhythmia, warming the blood before transfusion can help prevent additional arrhythmias. Cold blood can lead to arrhythmias and should be avoided. Administering pain medication (Choice A) is not directly related to the safe administration of blood. Informing the patient's family in person (Choice B) is important but not the immediate action required for safe transfusion. Decreasing the temperature of the blood to be given (Choice C) would increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmia, contrary to the goal of ensuring patient safety.
2. Which type of hepatitis is transmitted via the fecal-oral route?
- A. Hepatitis A
- B. Hepatitis B
- C. Hepatitis C
- D. Hepatitis D
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hepatitis A is the correct answer because it is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, often through contaminated food or water. Hepatitis B is transmitted through exposure to infectious blood, semen, and other body fluids, not through the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis C is transmitted through blood-to-blood contact, not via the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis D occurs only in individuals infected with Hepatitis B. Therefore, the correct choice for the type of hepatitis transmitted via the fecal-oral route is Hepatitis A.
3. A nurse is covering a pediatric unit and is responsible for a 15-year-old male patient on the floor. The mother of the child states, "I think my son is sexually interested in girls."? The most appropriate course of action for the nurse is to respond by stating:
- A. "I will talk to the doctor about it."?
- B. "Has this been going on for a while?"?
- C. "How do you know this?"?
- D. "Teenagers often exhibit signs of sexual interest in females."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate response for the nurse in this situation is to acknowledge that teenagers often exhibit signs of sexual interest in females. This response normalizes the mother's concern and provides reassurance that such behavior is typical during adolescence. Option A deflects the conversation to the doctor without addressing the mother's concern directly. Option B focuses on the duration rather than addressing the mother's statement. Option C may come off as defensive or dismissive, questioning the mother's observation. Therefore, the best response is to acknowledge the normalcy of teenage behavior regarding sexual interest.
4. The client develops a tension pneumothorax. Assessment is expected to reveal?
- A. Sudden hypertension and bradycardia
- B. Productive cough with yellow mucus
- C. Tracheal deviation and dyspnea
- D. Sudden development of profuse hemoptysis and weakness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a tension pneumothorax, the trachea deviates to the unaffected side due to increased pressure in the affected pleural space, causing respiratory distress. Dyspnea is a hallmark symptom as the lung on the affected side collapses, leading to difficulty in breathing. Sudden hypertension and bradycardia (Choice A) are not typical findings of tension pneumothorax. Productive cough with yellow mucus (Choice B) is more suggestive of respiratory infections rather than a tension pneumothorax. Sudden development of profuse hemoptysis and weakness (Choice D) is not characteristic of tension pneumothorax presentation.
5. The client is cared for by a nurse and calls for the nurse to come to the room, expressing feeling unwell. The client's vital signs are BP: 130/88, HR: 102, RR: 28. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Administer PRN anxiolytic
- B. Administer Antibiotics
- C. Reassure the client that everything is okay and offer food and beverage
- D. Determine the Glasgow Coma Scale
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! The client's vital signs indicate tachycardia and tachypnea, which could be indicative of hypoxia. Administering a PRN anxiolytic would not address the underlying issue and could mask deterioration. Reassuring the client without further assessment or intervention could lead to a delay in appropriate care if there is a serious underlying cause for the symptoms. Determining the Glasgow Coma Scale is not relevant to the client's presenting symptoms of feeling unwell and suspecting something is wrong, coupled with abnormal vital signs.
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