Nursing Elites

1. After receiving a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for:

• A. tuberculosis.
• B. herpes.
• C. hepatitis.
• D. syphilis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After receiving a recent tattoo, screening for hepatitis is crucial due to the risk of blood-borne hepatitis B or C if strict sterile procedures are not followed during the tattooing process. Tuberculosis is an airborne pathogen and is not directly related to receiving a tattoo. Herpes and syphilis are infections spread through direct contact, such as sexual contact, and are not typically associated with tattooing.

2. Which of the following neurological disorders is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs?

• A. epilepsy
• B. Parkinson's
• C. multiple sclerosis
• D. Huntington's chorea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Huntington's chorea is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs, known as chorea. This disorder is caused by a genetic mutation affecting specific brain cells. Epilepsy presents with seizures, Parkinson's with tremors and rigidity, and multiple sclerosis with central nervous system issues. The specific description of writhing and twisting movements aligns with Huntington's chorea, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they describe different neurological disorders with distinct symptoms that do not match the writhing, twisting movements characteristic of Huntington's chorea.

3. What should be the primary action for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood?

• A. Document the vomiting.
• B. Increase IV fluids.
• C. Get a complete blood count.
• D. Check the blood pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood is to check the blood pressure. This assessment is crucial to evaluate for hypotension, which could indicate significant blood loss and the need for immediate intervention. Documenting the vomiting is important for the client's medical record but not the initial priority. Increasing IV fluids and getting a complete blood count are necessary steps but should follow the assessment of the client's hemodynamic status.

4. Which of the following provides the framework for confidentiality and the client's right to privacy?

• A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
• B. CDC Surveillance Programs
• C. American Nurses Association Code of Ethics
• D. Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). HIPAA is the federal statute that outlines client confidentiality and the client's right to privacy. It establishes national standards to protect individuals' medical records and personal health information. The American Nurses Association Code of Ethics emphasizes principles of nursing ethics but does not serve as a legal framework for confidentiality and privacy. CDC Surveillance Programs focus on disease surveillance and control at a public health level and are not directly related to individual client privacy. The durable power of attorney for health care pertains to granting legal decision-making authority to another individual in healthcare matters, rather than addressing confidentiality and privacy rights.

5. A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery
• B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
• C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes
• D. Telling the client that it is her surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client's legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client's part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.

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