Nursing Elites

1. What spinal change occurring with pregnancy alters mobility?

• A. Scoliosis.
• B. Kyphosis.
• C. Lordosis.
• D. Ankylosing spondylitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lordosis.' During pregnancy, the enlarging uterus places increased weight on the spine, causing an exaggerated inward curvature known as lordosis. This change alters mobility by shifting the center of gravity forward, leading to a compensatory change in posture. Scoliosis (choice A) is a sideways curvature of the spine, not typically associated with pregnancy. Kyphosis (choice B) is an exaggerated outward curvature of the spine, while ankylosing spondylitis (choice D) is a chronic inflammatory condition affecting the spine, neither of which are directly related to the spinal changes seen in pregnancy.

2. A discharge planning nurse is making arrangements for a client with an epidural catheter for continuous infusion of opioids to be placed in a long-term care facility. The family prefers a facility in its neighborhood to facilitate visiting. The neighborhood facility has never cared for a client with this type of need. What is the most appropriate action by the discharge planning nurse?

• A. Arrange for immediate in-services for the long-term care facility staff on pain management using epidural catheters.
• B. Explain the situation to the client and family and seek another long-term care facility for discharge from the hospital.
• C. Encourage the family to hire private duty nurses skilled in epidural catheter pain management to allow the client to be transferred to the neighborhood facility.
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority is the safety and well-being of the client. The neighborhood facility's lack of experience in caring for a client with an epidural catheter for continuous opioid infusion raises concerns about the quality of care they can provide. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the discharge planning nurse is to explain the situation to the client and family and seek another long-term care facility that can provide the necessary care. Option A, arranging for immediate in-services, may not be feasible or timely, considering the urgent need for appropriate care. Option C, encouraging the family to hire private duty nurses, does not ensure the facility's overall capability to manage the client's complex needs. Option D, 'None of the above,' is not the best choice as the client's safety should be the priority in this situation.

3. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?

• A. 4 inches.
• B. 6 inches.
• C. 2 inches.
• D. 8 inches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.

4. The nurse manager of a quality improvement program asks a nurse in the neurological unit to conduct a retrospective audit. Which action should the auditing nurse plan to perform in this type of audit?

• A. Checking the crash cart to ensure that all needed supplies are readily available in case of an emergency
• B. Checking the documentation written by a new nursing graduate on her assigned clients at the end of the shift
• C. Reviewing neurological assessment checklists for all clients on the unit to ensure that these assessments are being conducted as prescribed
• D. Obtaining the assigned medical record from the hospital's medical record room to review documentation made during a client's hospital stay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, focuses on processes contributing to client safety and care outcomes. Retrospective audits involve reviewing medical records after discharge for compliance with standards. Concurrent audits assess staff compliance during a client's stay. Therefore, obtaining the medical record from the hospital's record room for review is crucial in a retrospective audit. Options A, B, and C are more suited for concurrent audits as they involve real-time assessment during a client's stay.

5. In an emergency situation where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, what action is necessary with regard to informed consent?

• A. The healthcare team will proceed with the surgery as consent is not needed in emergencies.
• B. The healthcare team will wait until the client's family can be contacted for consent.
• C. The healthcare team will contact the hospital clergy to provide informed consent.
• D. The healthcare team will obtain consent from the client's legal guardian before proceeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where obtaining consent is not possible due to the client's condition, healthcare providers are allowed to perform life-saving procedures without informed consent. It is assumed that the client would want to receive necessary treatment to save their life. Therefore, the correct action is for the healthcare team to proceed with the surgery as consent is not needed. Waiting to contact the client's family for consent can delay life-saving treatment, risking the client's life. Contacting the hospital clergy for consent is unnecessary and can cause further delays. Obtaining consent from the client's legal guardian is not feasible in this critical situation and may lead to a delay in providing essential care.

Similar Questions