Nursing Elites

1. Which is an appropriate outcome for the nursing diagnosis of Body Image Disturbance for a client with anorexia nervosa?

• A. The client verbalizes knowledge of a maintenance diet.
• B. The client demonstrates assertiveness with family.
• C. The client verbalizes her body size accurately.
• D. The client demonstrates control of obsessive behaviors.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client verbalizes her body size accurately.' For clients with anorexia nervosa, body image disturbance is a common issue where they perceive themselves inaccurately. Verbalizing her body size accurately indicates progress towards correcting this distorted self-perception. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the distorted body image perception seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Choice A focuses on knowledge of a maintenance diet, which is unrelated to body image perception. Choice B involves assertiveness with family, which is more related to family dynamics. Choice D addresses control of obsessive behaviors, which is not directly related to correcting the distorted body image perception.

2. When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, the nurse should administer:

• A. Indomethacin
• B. Codeine
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Compazine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, Compazine is the appropriate medication to administer. Compazine, also known as prochlorperazine, is commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain that trigger nausea and vomiting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Indomethacin, Codeine, and Ibuprofen are not typically used to manage nausea associated with Morphine epidural analgesia.

3. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell's palsy
• B. Guillain-Barré syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

4. A client with a closed chest tube drainage system accidentally disconnects the chest tube while being turned by the nurse. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Submerge the end of the chest tube in a bottle of sterile water
• B. Clamp the chest tube with a Kelly clamp
• C. Call the health care provider
• D. Instruct the client to inhale and hold his breath

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a chest tube becomes disconnected, the priority action is to immediately reattach it to the drainage system or submerge the end in a bottle of sterile water or saline solution to reestablish a water seal. This helps prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing complications. Calling the health care provider is important but not the first action in this emergency. Instructing the client to inhale and hold his breath should be avoided as it can introduce atmospheric air into the pleural space, leading to potential issues. Clamping the chest tube is generally contraindicated, especially in cases of residual air leak or pneumothorax, as it may result in a tension pneumothorax by preventing air from escaping.

5. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) works on an adult medical/surgical unit and has been pulled to work on the burn unit, which cares for clients of all ages. What should the LPN do?

• A. The LPN should take the assignment, but make it clear they will only care for adult clients.
• B. The LPN should take the assignment, but explain the situation to the charge nurse and ask for a quick orientation before starting.
• C. The LPN should refuse to take the assignment, as caring for the infant and child population is not within their scope of practice.
• D. The LPN should take the assignment, but ask to be paired with a more experienced LPN.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the LPN to demonstrate flexibility and a willingness to adapt to the new assignment that involves caring for clients of all ages. While the LPN may have expertise in a specific nursing area, it is essential to be able to provide care to diverse client populations. Accepting the assignment reflects a commitment to teamwork and patient care. However, to ensure safe and competent care, the LPN should communicate with the charge nurse about the situation. Requesting a quick orientation will help the LPN familiarize themselves with the burn unit's specific requirements, equipment, and protocols. This proactive approach allows the LPN to address any concerns, ask questions, and seek necessary support, ultimately ensuring the best care for all clients in the burn unit. Choice A is incorrect because limiting care to only adult clients may not be feasible in a unit that cares for clients of all ages. Choice C is incorrect as refusing the assignment outright may not be the best approach without considering alternatives. Choice D is not the most effective option as asking to be paired with a more experienced LPN does not address the need for a quick orientation to the new unit.

Similar Questions