Nursing Elites

1. Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:

• A. nasal flaring
• B. grunting
• C. seesaw breathing
• D. quivering lips

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children can manifest in various ways. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all indicative of respiratory distress in pediatric patients. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils with breathing effort, grunting is a sound made during exhalation to try to keep the airways open, and seesaw breathing involves the chest moving in the opposite direction of the abdomen. However, quivering lips are not typically associated with impaired breathing in this context. Lip quivering is a distracter and not a common sign of respiratory distress in infants and children. Therefore, the correct answer is 'quivering lips.'

2. The newborn nursery is filled to capacity. Which newborn should the nurse assess first?

• A. A three-hour-old just waking up after a period of sleep
• B. A two-day-old crying loudly
• C. A three-day-old two hours after circumcision
• D. A one-hour-old sucking his fist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical time for assessment in a newborn is during the second period of reactivity, which occurs approximately 3-5 hours after delivery. During this phase, newborns are more likely to gag on mucus and aspirate, making it crucial for the nurse to assess their respiratory status first. Choice A indicates a newborn in this critical phase, requiring immediate assessment for potential airway compromise or respiratory distress. Choices B, C, and D do not present an immediate need for assessment related to airway compromise or respiratory distress.

3. Which intervention should the nurse stop the nursing assistant from performing?

• A. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage of the client post cholecystectomy
• B. Performing passive range of motion on the client with right-sided paralysis
• C. Placing the traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray
• D. Discarding the first urine voided by the client starting a 24-hour urine test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray is an intervention that the nurse should stop the nursing assistant from performing. Traction should never be relieved without a doctor's order as it can result in muscle spasm and tissue damage. The other choices are appropriate nursing interventions and should not be stopped. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage, performing passive range of motion, and collecting the first urine void for a 24-hour urine test are all within the scope of practice and do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being.

4. A nurse is weighing a breastfed 6-month-old infant who has been brought to the pediatrician's office for a scheduled visit. The infant's weight at birth was 6 lb 8 oz. The nurse notes that the infant now weighs 13 lb. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the mother to decrease the daily number of feedings because the weight gain is excessive.
• B. Tell the mother that the infant's weight is increasing as expected.
• C. Tell the mother that the infant should continue with breast milk as the weight gain is adequate.
• D. Tell the mother that semisolid foods should not be introduced until the infant's weight stabilizes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the mother that the infant's weight gain is normal. Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months, which is precisely the case here, with the infant's weight increasing from 6 lb 8 oz to 13 lb. This weight gain indicates healthy growth and development. Therefore, there is no need to decrease feedings. The infant should continue with breast milk as it is providing adequate nutrition. Additionally, introducing semisolid foods is usually recommended between 4 and 6 months of age, so there is no indication to delay based on the infant's weight gain.

5. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?

• A. Shock
• B. Nephrotoxic drugs
• C. Enlarged prostate
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most common cause of acute renal failure is shock. In cases of shock, such as hypovolemic shock where there is low blood volume, the kidneys receive inadequate blood flow leading to acute renal failure. This can result in the kidneys starting to die within 20 minutes of low pressure. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is more commonly associated with this condition. An enlarged prostate can lead to urinary retention but is not the most common cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes, on the other hand, can cause chronic kidney disease over time but is not typically the primary cause of acute renal failure.

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