Nursing Elites

1. Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:

• A. nasal flaring
• B. grunting
• C. seesaw breathing
• D. quivering lips

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children can manifest in various ways. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all indicative of respiratory distress in pediatric patients. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils with breathing effort, grunting is a sound made during exhalation to try to keep the airways open, and seesaw breathing involves the chest moving in the opposite direction of the abdomen. However, quivering lips are not typically associated with impaired breathing in this context. Lip quivering is a distracter and not a common sign of respiratory distress in infants and children. Therefore, the correct answer is 'quivering lips.'

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's arterial blood gas values. Which of the following conditions apply under the following values? pH- 7.49 Bicarbonate ion 24 mEq/dl PaCO2 - 31 mmHg PaO2 - 52 mmHg FiO2 - 0.22

• A. respiratory acidosis
• B. respiratory alkalosis
• C. metabolic acidosis
• D. metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The given blood gas values indicate respiratory alkalosis. A high pH and low PaCO2 level are consistent with respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, no compensation for the alkalosis is noted, ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. Metabolic conditions would usually involve changes in bicarbonate levels, which remain within the normal range in this case.

3. In hanging a parenteral IV fluid that is to be infused by gravity, rather than with an infusion pump, the nurse notes that the IV tubing is available in different drop factors. Which tubing is a microdrop set?

• A. 15 drops per milliliter
• B. 60 drops per milliliter
• C. 20 drops per milliliter
• D. 10 drops per milliliter

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A microdrop set delivers 60 drops per milliliter of IV fluid. This allows for a more precise control of the infusion rate. The correct choice is B because it provides the desired microdrop rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A delivers 15 drops per milliliter, which is a macrodrop set. C delivers 20 drops per milliliter, also a macrodrop set. D delivers 10 drops per milliliter, another macrodrop set. Therefore, the correct choice for a microdrop set is B.

4. The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy (Coumadin�) following a stroke. The client's PT/INR was completed at 7:00 A.M. prior to the morning meal with an INR reading of 4.0. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority?

• A. Call the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose.
• B. Administer a vitamin K injection IM and notify the physician of the results.
• C. Assess the client for bleeding around the gums or in the stool and notify the physician of the lab results and latest dose of Coumadin�.
• D. Notify the next shift to hold the daily dose of Coumadin� scheduled for 5:00 P.M.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client receiving warfarin therapy with a high INR of 4.0, the nurse's first priority is to administer a vitamin K injection intramuscularly (IM) and notify the physician of the results. An INR of 4.0 indicates excessive anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of bleeding. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose and helps to reverse its effects. It is crucial to administer vitamin K promptly to prevent bleeding complications. Calling the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose is inappropriate and dangerous in this situation, as it would further raise the INR. Assessing the client for bleeding and notifying the physician is important but not the first priority when faced with a critically high INR. Holding the daily dose of Coumadin� may be necessary after administering vitamin K, but it is not the primary action needed to address the acute high INR level.

5. A patient has been ordered to receive Klonopin for the first time. Which of the following side effects is not associated with Klonopin?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Ataxia
• C. Salivation elevation
• D. Diplopia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diplopia.' While drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation are common side effects associated with Klonopin, diplopia is not typically linked to this medication. Diplopia, or double vision, is not a common side effect reported with the use of Klonopin. It is important to monitor patients for the known side effects such as drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation when administering Klonopin. Choice A, B, and C are incorrect as they are known side effects of Klonopin, unlike diplopia which is not commonly observed with this medication.

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