NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet
1. A patient has been ordered to receive Klonopin for the first time. Which of the following side effects is not associated with Klonopin?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Ataxia
- C. Salivation elevation
- D. Diplopia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diplopia.' While drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation are common side effects associated with Klonopin, diplopia is not typically linked to this medication. Diplopia, or double vision, is not a common side effect reported with the use of Klonopin. It is important to monitor patients for the known side effects such as drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation when administering Klonopin. Choice A, B, and C are incorrect as they are known side effects of Klonopin, unlike diplopia which is not commonly observed with this medication.
2. A nurse is caring for her clients when her new admit arrives on the unit. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Ask the nursing assistant to complete emptying the catheter bag and assess the new admission.
- B. Ask the nursing assistant to take vital signs on the new admit and begin the history until she can get there.
- C. Ask the graduate nurse on the floor to initiate the assessment process until she can get there.
- D. Ask the unit secretary to make the client and family comfortable until she can complete her present task.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to ask the graduate nurse on the floor to initiate the assessment process until she can arrive. Nursing assistants are not qualified to perform assessments, and the unit secretary's role does not involve client assessments. Delegating the assessment to the graduate nurse ensures that a qualified healthcare professional is evaluating the new admission, aligning with the nurse's responsibilities and providing appropriate care.
3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease arrives in the emergency department complaining of weakness and states that he vomited 'a lot of dark coffee-looking stomach contents.' The client is cool and moist to the touch. BP 90/50, HR 110, RR 20, T 98. Of the following physician orders, which will the nurse perform first?
- A. Initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula.
- B. Start an IV of NS at 150 ml/hr
- C. Insert NG tube to low suction
- D. Attach the client to the ECG monitor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula. The client is presenting signs of shock with hypotension, tachycardia, and cool, moist skin, which indicate poor tissue perfusion. Oxygen should be administered first to improve tissue oxygenation. While all interventions are important, oxygenation takes priority in the ABCs of emergency care. Starting an IV of NS, inserting an NG tube, and attaching the client to the ECG monitor are necessary interventions but should follow the priority of oxygen administration in this scenario.
4. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:
- A. the inability of the kidneys to excrete the drug metabolites.
- B. rapid cell catabolism.
- C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics that are given concurrently.
- D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.
5. What must the evening nurse do to facilitate the client's ECT treatment the next morning?
- A. Ensure the patient signs an informed consent form
- B. Administer evening medications
- C. Ensure the patient gets a good night's sleep
- D. Provide dietary restrictions as per ECT protocol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatment, obtaining informed consent is crucial before the procedure. This ensures the patient is aware of the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the treatment. Administering medications, ensuring rest, and dietary restrictions are important but not directly related to the specific requirement of obtaining informed consent for ECT. The correct answer, ensuring the patient signs an informed consent form, is essential to uphold the patient's autonomy and ensure they have the necessary information to make an informed decision about their treatment.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access