serum vancomycin levels are taken to measure which of the following
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1. Why is monitoring Serum Vancomycin levels important?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring Serum Vancomycin levels is essential to determine the drug's therapeutic range, ensuring optimal effectiveness while avoiding toxicity. Peak levels indicate the drug's highest concentration, while trough levels represent the lowest concentration before the next dose. Assessing renal function is typically done using creatinine, BUN, or creatinine clearance tests, not Serum Vancomycin levels. Evaluating antibiotic resistance involves sensitivity testing, not monitoring Vancomycin levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to determine the therapeutic range.

2. A small amount of bubbling is seen in the water seal of a pleural drainage system when a client coughs. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A small amount of bubbling is a normal finding in the water seal of a pleural drainage system when a client coughs. It is only a problem to find continuous, excessive bubbling in the water seal, which indicates a leak. Checking the system for leaks would be appropriate if there is continuous, excessive bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or changing the drainage system is not necessary in response to a small amount of bubbling during a cough, as this is considered a normal finding.

3. Why is accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers crucial?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers is crucial because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard practice in nursing care. Documenting these findings not only ensures continuity of care but also plays a vital role in preventing further progression of the ulcer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while laws, hospital policies, and physician requirements may influence documentation practices, the primary reason for accurate documentation lies in the standards of nursing practice and the quality of patient care.

4. An 80-year-old aphasic CVA client had abdominal surgery 2 days ago. Which of the following puts this client at the highest risk for inadequate pain management?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inability to communicate pain. In this scenario, the client's aphasia prevents them from verbally expressing their pain, which can lead to inadequate pain management if the healthcare team is not vigilant. The nurse must use alternative methods to assess and address the client's pain. Choices A, C, and D, although important considerations in postoperative care, do not directly relate to the client's ability to communicate pain, which is crucial for effective pain management in this case.

5. What are the hazards of improper splinting?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hazards of improper splinting can lead to the aggravation of a bone or joint injury, reduced distal circulation, and delay in transporting a client with a life-threatening injury. Choosing 'All of the above' (Option D) is the correct answer as it encompasses all the hazards mentioned. Option A is incorrect because it only addresses one aspect of the hazards. Option B is incorrect as it does not cover all the hazards associated with improper splinting. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on only one hazard and does not account for the others.

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