Nursing Elites

1. A health care provider writes a medication prescription in a client's record. While transcribing the prescription, the nurse notes that the prescribed dose is three times higher than the recommended dose. The nurse calls the health care provider, who states that this is the dose that the client takes at home and that it is acceptable for this client's condition. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Verifying the prescribed dose with the client before administering the medication
• B. Contacting the nursing supervisor
• C. Asking the nurse assigned to care for the client to administer the medication
• D. Continuing to transcribe the prescription

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse has identified a significant discrepancy between the prescribed dose and the recommended dose. While the health care provider has justified the higher dose based on the client's home regimen, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure patient safety. If a nurse has concerns about a prescription being incorrect or potentially harmful, they should seek further clarification from the health care provider. Since the nurse still believes the dose is inappropriate after discussing with the health care provider, the next appropriate action is to contact the nursing supervisor. Continuing to transcribe the prescription without addressing the concern could jeopardize the client's safety. Asking another nurse to administer the medication without proper resolution of the dosage concern would also pose a risk to the client. While verifying the prescribed dose with the client is important, in this situation, the nurse should first escalate the issue to the nursing supervisor to ensure appropriate actions are taken.

2. The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:

• A. Good Samaritan laws.
• B. HIPAA.
• C. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).
• D. OBRA.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.

3. Ethical and moral issues concerning restraints include all of the following except:

• A. emotional impact on the client and family.
• B. dignity of the client.
• C. client's quality of life.
• D. policies and procedures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'policies and procedures.' While policies and procedures are essential for managing restraints, they are not in themselves ethical or moral issues. The emotional impact on the client and family, the dignity of the client, and the client's quality of life are all ethical and moral concerns related to the use of restraints. These aspects focus on the well-being, respect, and rights of the individual, which are fundamental ethical considerations in healthcare practice. Choices A, B, and C are directly tied to ethical and moral considerations by highlighting the impact on individuals involved and their overall quality of life and dignity, making them key factors to address in ethical decision-making.

4. A case manager is reviewing the records of the clients in the nursing unit. Which note(s) in a client's record indicate an unexpected outcome and the need for follow-up?

• A. A client is performing their own colostomy irrigations.
• B. A client with a central venous catheter has a temperature of 100.6°F.
• C. A client who has just undergone surgery has a urine output of more than 30 mL/hr.
• D. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is self-administering insulin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A case manager is a healthcare professional responsible for coordinating a client's care from admission through and after discharge. They evaluate and update the plan of care as needed, monitoring for unexpected outcomes and providing follow-up. A temperature of 100.6°F in a client with a central venous catheter is an unexpected outcome that requires follow-up due to the potential indication of an infection. Choices A, C, and D describe expected outcomes and appropriate self-care management. The client self-irrigating their colostomy, a post-surgical client having adequate urine output, and a newly diagnosed diabetic self-administering insulin are all positive indicators of self-care and expected outcomes, not requiring immediate follow-up.

5. What instruction should a client who is about to undergo pelvic ultrasonography be given by a healthcare provider?

• A. "Urinate prior to the test."?
• B. "Have someone drive you home."?
• C. "Do not drink after midnight."?
• D. "Drink plenty of water."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client about to undergo pelvic ultrasonography is to 'Drink plenty of water.' A full bladder is required to serve as a landmark to define pelvic organs during the procedure. It is important to ensure the bladder is adequately filled. 'Urinate prior to the test' (Choice A) would not be appropriate as a full bladder is needed for better visualization. 'Have someone drive you home' (Choice B) is unnecessary as no sedation is given during the procedure, so the client can drive home on their own. 'Do not drink after midnight' (Choice C) is unrelated and not necessary for a pelvic ultrasonography examination.

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