Nursing Elites

1. An example of a process standard on a med-surg unit is:

• A. a procedure for changing IV tubing.
• B. a policy for staffing.
• C. the job description of the CEO (chief executive officer).
• D. a procedure for checking waveforms on a client being treated with an intra-aortic balloon pump.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Process standards define the actions and behaviors required by staff to provide care on a med-surg unit. A procedure for changing IV tubing is a critical psychomotor skill necessary for safe and effective patient care in this setting. Choice B, a policy for staffing, pertains more to organizational management rather than specific care processes on the unit. Choice C, the job description of the CEO, delineates the responsibilities of the organization's top executive and is not a process standard for frontline staff. Choice D, a procedure for checking waveforms on a client with an intra-aortic balloon pump, is more specific to a cardiac care unit and not typically performed on a med-surg unit.

2. The nurse is teaching a client about communicable diseases and explains that a portal of entry is:

• A. a vector.
• B. a source, like contaminated water.
• C. food.
• D. the respiratory system.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the respiratory system.' A portal of entry is the path through which a microorganism enters the body. In the case of communicable diseases, the respiratory system can serve as a portal of entry for pathogens such as viruses or bacteria. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'vector' is an organism that transmits disease, not the entry point for pathogens. Contaminated water or food can act as sources or reservoirs of disease-causing microorganisms, not portals of entry.

3. When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, which of the following factors is least relevant?

• A. current medications
• B. ambulation abilities
• C. family history
• D. hydration status

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, family history is the least relevant factor to consider. Current medications can affect elimination functions through side effects, ambulation abilities can impact mobility to access toileting facilities, and hydration status directly influences urinary output and bowel function. Family history, although providing some context, does not have a direct impact on the client's current risk of elimination impairment.

4. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.

5. How often should physical restraints be released?

• A. Every 2 hours
• B. Between 1 and 3 hours
• C. Every 30 minutes
• D. At least every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

Similar Questions