on morning rounds the nurse finds a somnolent client with a blood glucose of 89 mgdl a sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be admi
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. On morning rounds, the nurse finds a somnolent client with a Blood glucose of 89 mg/dL. A sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be administered. What is the nurse's best action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Sulfonureas should be held for blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL until the client has food to prevent hypoglycemia. Giving the proton pump inhibitor is appropriate and does not need to be delayed. Option B is incorrect because holding both medications without taking appropriate action may lead to further complications. Option C is not the best choice as it does not address the need to hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Option D is incorrect because administering the medications without ensuring the client eats may lead to hypoglycemia.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. What is the most likely electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where the client experiences severe nausea and vomiting, the most likely electrolyte imbalance is hypokalemia. Potassium is abundant in the stomach, and excessive vomiting leads to potassium loss. Hypocalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Hypomagnesemia (Choice B) and Hyponatremia (Choice C) are less likely to occur compared to hypokalemia in this condition.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated cortisol level. The nurse can expect the client to exhibit symptoms of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated cortisol levels can lead to sodium and fluid retention and potassium deficit, resulting in urinary deficit. This imbalance in electrolytes and fluid can cause a decrease in urinary output. Choices B, hyperpituitarism, and D, hyperthyroidism, are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the symptoms expected with elevated cortisol levels. Option A, urinary excess, is also incorrect as high cortisol levels typically lead to fluid retention and urinary deficit, not excess.

4. Is head lag expected to be resolved by 4 months of age? Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Head lag is a developmental milestone that should be resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate potential developmental delays or muscle weakness. The correct answer, 'Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps,' reflects symptoms that could be associated with developmental delays or underlying health conditions. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension (Choice A) are unlikely to be directly related to head lag. Choices C and D present symptoms that are unrelated to the issue of continued head lag at 6 months of age.

5. What type of diet is appropriate for a client with chronic cirrhosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct diet for a client with chronic cirrhosis is high calorie, low protein. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired protein metabolism, making it essential to limit protein intake. High-calorie foods help meet the client's energy needs. Choice B (High protein, high calorie) is incorrect because high protein intake can worsen hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C (Low fat, low sodium) is not the most appropriate diet for cirrhosis as the focus should be on calories and protein. Choice D (High calorie, low sodium) does not address the need to restrict protein intake, which is crucial in cirrhosis.

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