Nursing Elites

1. On morning rounds, the nurse finds a somnolent client with a Blood glucose of 89 mg/dL. A sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be administered. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats
• B. Hold medications and notify the physician
• C. Arouse the client and give some orange juice with sugar packets added
• D. Give the medications as ordered and re-check blood sugar in one hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Sulfonureas should be held for blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL until the client has food to prevent hypoglycemia. Giving the proton pump inhibitor is appropriate and does not need to be delayed. Option B is incorrect because holding both medications without taking appropriate action may lead to further complications. Option C is not the best choice as it does not address the need to hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Option D is incorrect because administering the medications without ensuring the client eats may lead to hypoglycemia.

2. Erythropoietin used to treat anemia in clients with renal failure should be given in conjunction with:

• A. iron, folic acid, and B12.
• B. an increase in protein in the diet.
• C. vitamins A and C.
• D. an increase in calcium in the diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythropoietin is necessary for red blood cell (RBC) production, and in clients with renal failure who lack endogenous erythropoietin, exogenous erythropoietin is administered. However, for erythropoietin to effectively stimulate RBC production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12 are crucial. These nutrients are essential for RBC synthesis and maturation. Therefore, the correct answer is to give iron, folic acid, and B12 with erythropoietin. Choice B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not necessary for RBC production and may exacerbate uremia in clients with renal failure. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, respectively, are not directly related to RBC production and are not required to enhance the effectiveness of erythropoietin.

3. The client has been taking divalproex (Depakote) for the management of bipolar disorder. The nurse should give priority to monitoring which laboratory test?

• A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
• B. Serum glucose
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Monitoring ALT levels is crucial when a patient is taking divalproex (Depakote) due to the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Elevated ALT levels indicate liver damage or disorders, which can be a side effect of Depakote. Serum glucose (choice B) is not the priority for monitoring in this case, as the medication does not directly affect glucose levels. Serum creatinine (choice C) is not the most relevant test to monitor for Depakote use; it primarily assesses kidney function. Serum electrolytes (choice D) are important but do not take precedence over monitoring ALT levels when a patient is on Depakote.

4. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:

• A. the inability of the kidneys to excrete the drug metabolites.
• B. rapid cell catabolism.
• C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics that are given concurrently.
• D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.

5. When placing an IV line in a patient with active TB and HIV, which safety equipment should the nurse wear?

• A. Sterile gloves, mask, and goggles
• B. Surgical cap, gloves, mask, and proper shoewear
• C. Double gloves, gown, and mask
• D. Goggles, mask, gloves, and gown

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a patient with active TB and HIV, the nurse should wear goggles, a mask, gloves, and a gown to protect themselves from potential exposure to infectious agents through respiratory secretions or blood. Surgical cap and proper shoewear are not specifically required for this procedure, making option B incorrect. Double gloving is not necessary in this scenario, hence option C is incorrect. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it includes all the essential protective equipment for this situation.

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