Nursing Elites

1. On morning rounds, the nurse finds a somnolent client with a Blood glucose of 89 mg/dL. A sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be administered. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats
• B. Hold medications and notify the physician
• C. Arouse the client and give some orange juice with sugar packets added
• D. Give the medications as ordered and re-check blood sugar in one hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Sulfonureas should be held for blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL until the client has food to prevent hypoglycemia. Giving the proton pump inhibitor is appropriate and does not need to be delayed. Option B is incorrect because holding both medications without taking appropriate action may lead to further complications. Option C is not the best choice as it does not address the need to hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Option D is incorrect because administering the medications without ensuring the client eats may lead to hypoglycemia.

2. Which of the following arterial blood gas values indicates a patient may be experiencing a condition of metabolic acidosis?

• A. PaO2 90 mm Hg
• B. Bicarbonate 15 mEq/L
• C. CO2 47 mm Hg
• D. pH 7.34

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bicarbonate 15 mEq/L. In metabolic acidosis, the bicarbonate levels are lower than normal. A bicarbonate value of 15 mEq/L indicates a deficit in the buffer system, contributing to the acidosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A, PaO2 90 mm Hg, reflects oxygen partial pressure and is not directly related to metabolic acidosis. Choice C, CO2 47 mm Hg, represents carbon dioxide levels and is more indicative of respiratory status. Choice D, pH 7.34, falls within the normal range (7.35-7.45) and does not confirm metabolic acidosis.

3. When auscultating breath sounds, the nurse auscultates over the following locations:

• A. Trachea and lateral areas of thoracic cage
• B. Anterior and posterior aspects of all lung fields
• C. The mid section as well as the lateral section of the lungs
• D. The mid-clavicular to mid-axillary lines comparing side to side

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anterior and posterior aspects of all lung fields. When auscultating breath sounds, it is essential to listen to the front (anterior) and back (posterior) aspects of all lung fields. This comprehensive approach allows for a thorough assessment of breath sounds throughout the lungs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is too limited as it only focuses on the trachea and lateral areas, not covering all lung fields. Choice C is also too limited, referring to specific sections of the lungs (mid section and lateral section). Choice D is incorrect as it suggests comparing specific lines on the chest (mid-clavicular to mid-axillary), which is not a standard practice for auscultating breath sounds.

4. What is an appropriate intervention for the client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus?

• A. Insertion of a Foley catheter.
• B. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis.
• C. Obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis.
• D. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client presents with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus, obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis is an appropriate intervention. This helps assess for any urinary tract injuries or abnormalities without further traumatizing the area. Insertion of a Foley catheter (Choice A) should be avoided as it can worsen the existing trauma. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen (Choice B) involves unnecessary manipulation and can increase the risk of complications. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician (Choice D) may delay the assessment compared to obtaining a direct voided urine specimen.

5. Teaching the client with gonorrhea how to prevent reinfection and further spread is an example of

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. primary health care prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. This type of prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease by early detection and treatment. In the case of gonorrhea, teaching the client how to prevent reinfection and further spread falls under secondary prevention because it aims to reduce the prevalence and morbidity of the disease. Choice A (primary prevention) involves measures to prevent the disease from occurring in the first place, such as vaccination. Choice C (tertiary prevention) focuses on managing the long-term consequences of a disease to prevent complications. Choice D (primary health care prevention) is not a recognized term in prevention strategies.

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