Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated cortisol level. The nurse can expect the client to exhibit symptoms of:

• A. urinary excess
• B. hyperpituitarism
• C. urinary deficit
• D. hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated cortisol levels can lead to sodium and fluid retention and potassium deficit, resulting in urinary deficit. This imbalance in electrolytes and fluid can cause a decrease in urinary output. Choices B, hyperpituitarism, and D, hyperthyroidism, are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the symptoms expected with elevated cortisol levels. Option A, urinary excess, is also incorrect as high cortisol levels typically lead to fluid retention and urinary deficit, not excess.

2. Which action by a graduate nurse would require the charge nurse to intervene?

• A. Walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering
• B. Putting on a surgical mask, gown, and cap before entering the operating room
• C. Wearing a surgical mask into the holding area
• D. Wearing scrubs from home into the nursing station

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering. In healthcare settings, it is crucial to adhere to infection control measures, which include wearing appropriate attire to prevent the spread of pathogens. Walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering violates these infection control protocols, necessitating immediate intervention by the charge nurse. Choices B and C are incorrect because putting on surgical attire before entering the operating room and wearing a surgical mask into the holding area are both standard practices that promote patient safety and infection control. Choice D is also incorrect as wearing scrubs from home into the nursing station, while not ideal, is not a violation that warrants immediate intervention compared to breaching infection control protocols near sensitive areas like the operating room.

3. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by

• A. the kidneys' inability to excrete the drug metabolites.
• B. rapid cell catabolism.
• C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently.
• D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' Chemotherapy leads to the destruction of cells, resulting in increased uric acid levels due to cell breakdown. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is not with the kidneys' ability to excrete the drug metabolites but rather with the cell breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as the question focuses on chemotherapy and its effects, not prophylactic antibiotics. Choice D is incorrect as the question pertains to the development of high uric acid levels, not altered blood pH from acidic drugs.

4. A mother brings her 13-month-old child with Down Syndrome to a pediatric clinic reporting muscle weakness and poor movement. The child's reflexes are noted to be diminished. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Contact the physician immediately
• B. Have the patient go for an X-ray for a c-spine work-up
• C. Start an IV on the patient
• D. Position the child's neck in a neutral position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a child with Down Syndrome presenting with muscle weakness and diminished reflexes, an atlanto-axial dislocation is a concern. The priority action is to position the child's neck in a neutral c-spine posture to prevent further injury. This should be done before any movement or manipulation. Contacting the physician should follow to ensure appropriate evaluation and management. Initiating an IV is not indicated unless specifically ordered for a medical reason. Ordering an X-ray for a c-spine work-up should not be the first action as it may involve movement that could exacerbate the condition if an injury is present.

5. Assessment of the client with an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis should include:

• A. inspection for visible pulsations.
• B. palpation of thrill.
• C. percussion for dullness.
• D. auscultation of blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate for a thrill. A thrill should be present in a functioning arteriovenous fistula (AVF) and indicates good blood flow. The client should be educated to check for this sensation daily at home to monitor the AVF's patency. Visible pulsations are not typically observed in an AVF. Percussion for dullness does not provide relevant information about the AVF. Auscultation of blood pressure is not a standard practice in assessing an AVF. However, auscultation of the AVF for a bruit, a sound indicating turbulent blood flow, is crucial in evaluating the AVF's patency.

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