NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet
1. What are the side effects of first-generation over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamines like diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and hydroxyzine (Atarax) in infants and children?
- A. Reye's syndrome.
- B. cholinergic effects.
- C. paradoxical CNS stimulation.
- D. nausea and diarrhea.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is paradoxical CNS stimulation. First-generation OTC antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and hydroxyzine, can lead to paradoxical CNS stimulation in infants and children. This phenomenon is characterized by symptoms like excitement, euphoria, restlessness, and confusion, rather than the expected sedative effect. Due to this unexpected response, these antihistamines are used less frequently in pediatric populations. Reye's syndrome is a rare systemic response to a virus and is not a side effect of antihistamines. First-generation OTC antihistamines do not typically exhibit cholinergic effects. Nausea and diarrhea are uncommon side effects of these antihistamines and are less commonly observed than paradoxical CNS stimulation.
2. What must the evening nurse do to facilitate the client's ECT treatment the next morning?
- A. Ensure the patient signs an informed consent form
- B. Administer evening medications
- C. Ensure the patient gets a good night's sleep
- D. Provide dietary restrictions as per ECT protocol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatment, obtaining informed consent is crucial before the procedure. This ensures the patient is aware of the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the treatment. Administering medications, ensuring rest, and dietary restrictions are important but not directly related to the specific requirement of obtaining informed consent for ECT. The correct answer, ensuring the patient signs an informed consent form, is essential to uphold the patient's autonomy and ensure they have the necessary information to make an informed decision about their treatment.
3. The client is undergoing an induction for fetal demise at 34 weeks. Immediately after delivery, the mother asks to see the infant. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Bring the swaddled fetus to the mother
- B. Explain that the cause of death must be determined before she can see the baby
- C. Ask her if she is sure she wants to see the baby
- D. Tell her it would be better to wait until she is in her room before she sees the baby
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should bring the swaddled fetus to the mother as the best response. Allowing the mother to see the infant immediately after delivery is crucial for her grieving process. It provides her with the opportunity to bond, say goodbye, and start the grieving process. Choice B is incorrect because delaying the mother's request to see the baby can hinder her grieving process and prolong her suffering. Choice C is inappropriate as it questions the mother's decision at a sensitive time, potentially causing distress. Choice D is also not the best response as it suggests waiting, which may not be in the mother's best interest at that moment, as she needs immediate support and closure.
4. The client is scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina. What is the most likely preoperative nursing diagnosis for this client?
- A. Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.
- B. Deficient knowledge (preoperative and postoperative activities) related to lack of information.
- C. Acute pain related to tissue injury and decreased circulation to the eye.
- D. Risk for infection related to the eye injury.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct preoperative nursing diagnosis for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina is 'Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.' A client facing the threat of permanent blindness due to a detached retina is likely to experience anxiety. Addressing this anxiety is crucial before providing education, as severe anxiety can hinder the client's ability to absorb new information. The nurse should offer emotional support, encourage the client to express concerns, and clarify any misconceptions. Acute pain is not a typical symptom of a detached retina, and the risk of infection preoperatively is minimal, making choices C and D less relevant in this scenario.
5. The client with a history of advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) had conventional gallbladder surgery 2 days previously. Which intervention has priority for preventing respiratory complications?
- A. Incentive spirometry every 1 to 2 hours.
- B. Coughing and deep breathing every 1 to 2 hours.
- C. Getting the client out of bed 4 times daily as ordered by the physician.
- D. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute according to the physician's order.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority intervention for preventing respiratory complications in a client with advanced COPD who underwent gallbladder surgery is to get the client out of bed 4 times daily. This helps prevent pooling of secretions in the lungs and promotes better lung expansion. Incentive spirometry, coughing, and deep breathing are essential interventions; however, they should be performed more frequently, ideally every 1 to 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours or 4 times daily. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute could potentially decrease the client's respiratory drive, which is not the priority in this case.
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