Nursing Elites

1. What are the side effects of first-generation over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamines like diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and hydroxyzine (Atarax) in infants and children?

• A. Reye's syndrome.
• B. cholinergic effects.
• C. paradoxical CNS stimulation.
• D. nausea and diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is paradoxical CNS stimulation. First-generation OTC antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and hydroxyzine, can lead to paradoxical CNS stimulation in infants and children. This phenomenon is characterized by symptoms like excitement, euphoria, restlessness, and confusion, rather than the expected sedative effect. Due to this unexpected response, these antihistamines are used less frequently in pediatric populations. Reye's syndrome is a rare systemic response to a virus and is not a side effect of antihistamines. First-generation OTC antihistamines do not typically exhibit cholinergic effects. Nausea and diarrhea are uncommon side effects of these antihistamines and are less commonly observed than paradoxical CNS stimulation.

2. What happens if folic acid is administered to treat anemia without determining its underlying cause?

• A. Erythropoiesis is inhibited
• B. Excessive levels of folic acid might accumulate, causing toxicity
• C. The symptoms of pernicious anemia might be masked, delaying treatment
• D. Intrinsic factor is destroyed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When folic acid is given without determining the underlying cause of anemia, the symptoms of pernicious anemia may be masked, potentially delaying the correct treatment. Folic acid alone does not protect against the central nervous system changes seen in pernicious anemia, which are related to Vitamin B12 deficiency. Folic acid and Vitamin B12 are both crucial for cell growth and division. Administering folic acid without knowing the specific type of anemia could lead to a delay in addressing the root cause. Option A is incorrect because folic acid is essential for erythropoiesis, the production of red blood cells. Option B is incorrect as excessive folic acid can cause toxicity, but it is not the primary concern in this context. Option D is incorrect because folic acid treatment for anemia does not directly impact intrinsic factor, which is related to Vitamin B12 absorption.

3. Support systems during the grieving process include all of the following except:

• A. a despondent friend.
• B. a nurse.
• C. a social worker.
• D. a family member.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the grieving process, it is essential to have a support system in place. Options B, C, and D - a nurse, a social worker, and a family member, respectively, are individuals who can provide comfort, guidance, and practical assistance to someone who is grieving. However, a despondent friend, as stated in the question, is not an ideal choice for support during this period. A despondent friend is someone who is feeling extremely unhappy and discouraged, and may not have the emotional capacity to provide the needed support to a grieving individual. It is important for someone who is grieving to have support from individuals who can offer understanding, empathy, and strength, which a despondent friend may struggle to provide.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medical record. The record indicates the patient has limited shoulder flexion on the left. Which plane of movement is limited?

• A. Horizontal
• B. Sagittal
• C. Frontal
• D. Vertical

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Sagittal.' The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, and movements in this plane involve flexion and extension. In this case, limited shoulder flexion on the left indicates a restriction in the forward and backward movement of the arm, which occurs in the sagittal plane. Choice A, 'Horizontal,' is incorrect as it refers to movements parallel to the ground. Choice C, 'Frontal,' is incorrect as it involves side-to-side movements. Choice D, 'Vertical,' is incorrect as it typically refers to up and down movements.

5. One week ago, a client was involved in a motor vehicle crash (MVC) and was brought to the Emergency Department (ED). In the emergency department, the client received two stitches to the forehead and was sent home. Today, the client's spouse notes that the client 'acts like he is drunk' and cannot control his right foot and arm. The nurse will suspect?

• A. Meningitis
• B. Absence seizure
• C. Subdural hematoma
• D. Meniere's disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yes! The nurse will suspect a subdural hematoma. In this case, the client's presentation of acting intoxicated and experiencing loss of motor control in the right foot and arm is indicative of an acute subdural hematoma. This condition can occur after a head injury with a slow venous bleed, where symptoms may not show until compensation mechanisms are overwhelmed. Meningitis (choice A) usually presents with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. Absence seizure (choice B) is characterized by brief periods of unconsciousness without convulsions. Meniere's disease (choice D) manifests with symptoms like vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus, which do not match the client's current symptoms.

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