Nursing Elites

1. The client develops a tension pneumothorax. Assessment is expected to reveal?

• A. Sudden hypertension and bradycardia
• B. Productive cough with yellow mucus
• C. Tracheal deviation and dyspnea
• D. Sudden development of profuse hemoptysis and weakness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a tension pneumothorax, the trachea deviates to the unaffected side due to increased pressure in the affected pleural space, causing respiratory distress. Dyspnea is a hallmark symptom as the lung on the affected side collapses, leading to difficulty in breathing. Sudden hypertension and bradycardia (Choice A) are not typical findings of tension pneumothorax. Productive cough with yellow mucus (Choice B) is more suggestive of respiratory infections rather than a tension pneumothorax. Sudden development of profuse hemoptysis and weakness (Choice D) is not characteristic of tension pneumothorax presentation.

2. A client complaining of chest pain is prescribed an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid). After the infusion is initiated, the occurrence of which symptom warrants the nurse discontinuing an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin?

• A. Frontal headache
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Decrease in intensity of chest pain
• D. Cool clammy skin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cool clammy skin.' This assessment finding indicates decreased cardiac output that could result from excessive vasodilation. Cool clammy skin is a sign of poor perfusion, suggesting that the blood pressure might be dropping too low. Discontinuing the nitroglycerin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Choice A, 'Frontal headache,' is a common side effect of nitroglycerin but not a reason to discontinue the infusion unless severe or persistent. Choice B, 'Orthostatic hypotension,' may occur as a side effect of nitroglycerin but does not necessarily warrant discontinuation unless severe. Choice C, 'Decrease in intensity of chest pain,' is actually an expected therapeutic response to nitroglycerin and indicates improved myocardial perfusion, so it is not a reason to stop the infusion.

3. The schizophrenic client tells you that they are "Jesus"? and "there to save the world"?. They are reading from the Bible and warning others of hell and damnation. The whole unit is getting upset and several are beginning to cry. What should the nurse do at this time?

• A. Set limits and send the client to their room.
• B. Explain to the client that not all people are Christians.
• C. Remove the Bible from the client and explain that they are not "Jesus"?.
• D. Ask the client to share with the group how he knows that he is "Jesus"?.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to set limits with the client and redirect them to their room. The client's behavior is disruptive and causing distress among others in the unit. Sending the client to their room allows them to cool down and prevents further agitation among other patients. Removing the client from the current environment can help de-escalate the situation. Asking the client to share how they know they are "Jesus"? (Choice D) may further agitate the situation and is not the immediate priority. Explaining to the client that not all people are Christians (Choice B) may not effectively address the disruptive behavior. Removing the Bible from the client (Choice C) without addressing the underlying issue may escalate the situation further.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver and suspects that the client may be developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment by the nurse suggests that the client is developing this complication?

• A. Asterixis
• B. Hypertension
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Lethargy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asterixis, also known as flapping tremors, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy. It is a flapping tremor of the hands when the wrists are extended, indicating neurological impairment. Hypertension and Kussmaul respirations are not directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Lethargy is a common symptom but not a specific sign that suggests the development of hepatic encephalopathy.

5. When a client informs the nurse that he is experiencing hypoglycemia, the nurse provides immediate intervention by providing:

• A. one commercially prepared glucose tablet
• B. two hard candies
• C. 4-6 ounces of fruit juice
• D. 2-3 teaspoons of honey

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention for hypoglycemia is to provide 10-15 grams of fast-acting simple carbohydrates orally if the client is conscious and able to swallow. This can be achieved by giving 2-3 teaspoons of honey. Honey is a quick source of simple sugars that can rapidly raise blood glucose levels. Commercially prepared glucose tablets or 4-6 ounces of fruit juice are also appropriate options. However, adding sugar to fruit juice is unnecessary as the natural fruit sugar in juice already provides enough simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels. Hard candies are not the best choice for immediate intervention in hypoglycemia as they may not provide a sufficient amount of fast-acting carbohydrates needed to raise blood sugar levels quickly.

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