Nursing Elites

1. What is an appropriate intervention for the client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus?

• A. Insertion of a Foley catheter.
• B. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis.
• C. Obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis.
• D. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client presents with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus, obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis is an appropriate intervention. This helps assess for any urinary tract injuries or abnormalities without further traumatizing the area. Insertion of a Foley catheter (Choice A) should be avoided as it can worsen the existing trauma. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen (Choice B) involves unnecessary manipulation and can increase the risk of complications. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician (Choice D) may delay the assessment compared to obtaining a direct voided urine specimen.

2. Which of the following conditions places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis?

• A. Type I diabetes
• B. Alcoholism
• C. Leukemia
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Alcoholism places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis due to the liver damage caused by excessive alcohol consumption. Type I diabetes, leukemia, and glaucoma are not directly associated with cirrhosis. While diabetes can lead to other health complications, it does not directly cause cirrhosis. Leukemia is a type of blood cancer that does not affect the liver in a way that leads to cirrhosis. Glaucoma is an eye condition that has no direct link to cirrhosis.

3. A client admitted with an episode of bleeding esophageal varices is receiving propranolol (Inderal LA). The nurse knows to monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Arthralgia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Bradycardia.' Propranolol is a beta-blocking agent used to decrease the heart rate. In the case of bleeding esophageal varices, propranolol is given to reduce the risk of bleeding by keeping the heart rate around 55 beats per minute. Monitoring for bradycardia is essential as the medication's intended effect is to lower the heart rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol would not typically cause hypertension, hyperkalemia, or arthralgia.

4. When choosing a needle gauge for an intramuscular injection in a 12-year-old boy, which of the following gauges would you choose?

• A. 27 gauge
• B. 25 gauge
• C. 22 gauge
• D. 20 gauge

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 22 gauge. A 22-gauge needle is recommended for school-age children, toddlers, and adolescents due to their muscle mass and tolerance. In infants, a smaller gauge (23-25) is preferred as their muscles are less developed and more sensitive. Choice A, 27 gauge, is too thin for an intramuscular injection in a 12-year-old boy. Choice B, 25 gauge, is more suitable for infants than for a 12-year-old. Choice D, 20 gauge, is too thick and not typically used for intramuscular injections in children.

5. A patient has experienced a severe third-degree burn to the trunk in the last 36 hours. Which phase of burn management is the patient in?

• A. Shock phase
• B. Emergent phase
• C. Healing phase
• D. Wound proliferation phase

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shock phase. The shock phase occurs within the first 24-48 hours of burn management. During this phase, the focus is on stabilization, fluid resuscitation, and monitoring for potential complications. Choice B, the Emergent phase, is incorrect as it refers to the initial phase of burn care immediately after the injury. Choice C, the Healing phase, occurs later in the treatment process when the wound starts to repair itself. Choice D, the Wound proliferation phase, is not a recognized phase in burn management.

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