an appropriate intervention for the client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus is
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023

1. What is an appropriate intervention for the client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client presents with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus, obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis is an appropriate intervention. This helps assess for any urinary tract injuries or abnormalities without further traumatizing the area. Insertion of a Foley catheter (Choice A) should be avoided as it can worsen the existing trauma. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen (Choice B) involves unnecessary manipulation and can increase the risk of complications. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician (Choice D) may delay the assessment compared to obtaining a direct voided urine specimen.

2. Which microorganism is most commonly associated with gastritis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: H. pylori is the most common microorganism associated with gastritis, present in over 80% of cases. While syphilis, cytomegalovirus, and mycobacterium can also cause gastritis, they are much less prevalent compared to H. pylori. Therefore, the correct answer is H. pylori.

3. One day postoperative, the client complains of dyspnea, and his respiratory rate (RR) is 35, slightly labored, and there are no breath sounds in the lower-right base. The nurse should suspect:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is atelectasis. The absence of breath sounds in the lower-right base is a key finding in atelectasis, which occurs when a portion of the lung collapses. The other symptoms such as dyspnea and increased respiratory rate could be present in various pulmonary conditions. Cor pulmonale is typically associated with chronic lung disease, pulmonary embolism presents with sudden onset dyspnea and chest pain, and cardiac tamponade manifests with Beck's triad of hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds.

4. A client is 36 hours post-op a TKR surgery. 270 cc of sero-sanguinous fluid accumulates in the surgical drains. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the doctor. Significant sero-sanguinous drainage after TKR surgery could indicate a potential issue such as infection or bleeding. The physician needs to be informed promptly to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Emptying the drain, doing nothing, or removing the drain without consulting the physician could lead to complications going unnoticed or untreated. It is crucial to involve the physician in decision-making to ensure the best outcomes for the client.

5. After a left heart catheterization (LHC), a client complains of severe foot pain on the side of the femoral stick. The nurse notes pulselessness, pallor, and a cold extremity. What should the nurse's next action be?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to notify the physician immediately (stat). The client's symptoms of foot pain, pulselessness, pallor, and cold extremity suggest a potential vascular complication, such as arterial occlusion. Prompt notification of the physician is crucial as this condition requires urgent intervention to restore blood flow and prevent tissue damage. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice A) without physician evaluation could be harmful as the underlying cause needs to be determined first. Warming the room and re-assessing (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Increasing IV fluids (Choice C) is unlikely to address the urgent vascular issue indicated by the symptoms described.

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