Nursing Elites

1. During the examination of a client's throat, a nurse touches the posterior wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents normal function of which cranial nerves?

• A. Cranial nerves V and VI
• B. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• C. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• D. Cranial nerves IX and X

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). When the nurse touches the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex, it indicates normal function of these nerves. Cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VI (abducens nerve) are not directly responsible for the gag reflex. Cranial nerves XII (hypoglossal nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are not directly involved in eliciting the gag reflex. Testing cranial nerve I involves smell function, and cranial nerve II is related to eye examinations, making them irrelevant in this scenario.

2. A client is taught about healthy dietary measures and the MyPlate food plan. How many of his grains should be whole grains according to the MyPlate food plan?

• A. One-quarter
• B. One-third
• C. One-half
• D. Two-thirds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'One-half.' According to the MyPlate food plan, at least half of the grains consumed daily should be whole grains. This ensures a well-balanced and healthy diet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the dietary recommendation provided by the MyPlate food plan. One-quarter, one-third, and two-thirds do not represent the appropriate proportion of whole grains as advised by the plan, which emphasizes the importance of including a significant portion of whole grains in one's diet.

3. An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?

• A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
• B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
• C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
• D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.

4. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?

• A. Hysterosalpingography
• B. Semen analysis
• C. Endometrial biopsy
• D. Transvaginal ultrasound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.

5. While reviewing a client's health care record, a nurse notes documentation of the presence of borborygmus on abdominal assessment. Which finding does the nurse expect to note when auscultating the client's bowel sounds?

• A. Hypoactive bowel sounds
• B. Low-pitched bowel sounds
• C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• D. An absence of bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Borborygmus, a type of hyperactive bowel sound, is fairly common. It indicates hyperperistalsis, and the client may describe it as a growling stomach. Hyperactive bowel sounds are loud, high-pitched, and rushing sounds. Hypoactive bowel sounds are low-pitched and may occur post-surgery or with peritoneal inflammation. Low-pitched bowel sounds are not typically associated with borborygmus. An absence of bowel sounds indicates a potentially serious issue like an ileus, where bowel motility is decreased or absent.

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