NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. During a genital examination of a male client, a nurse notices wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. What should the nurse do based on this finding?
- A. Documents the normal finding
- B. Checks for penile discharge, as this indicates infection
- C. Palpates for a mass in the scrotum, as wrinkling suggests the presence of one
- D. Obtains additional subjective data from the client, focusing on the scrotal abnormality
Correct answer: Documents the normal finding
Rationale: The penile skin typically appears wrinkled and hairless, without lesions, during a normal examination. Also, the scrotal skin naturally has a wrinkled appearance known as rugae. It is common for the left half of the scrotum to be positioned lower than the right, indicating normal asymmetry. Given these normal variations, the nurse should document the finding of wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. Checking for penile discharge or palpating for a mass in the scrotum is not indicated based on the presence of wrinkled skin, as this is a normal finding. Obtaining additional subjective data focusing on a scrotal abnormality is unnecessary since the wrinkled appearance is typical.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s ECG report. The patient exhibits a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and short QT interval. Which of the following medications can cause all of the above effects?
- A. Morphine
- B. Atropine
- C. Procardia
- D. Digitalis
Correct answer: Digitalis
Rationale: The correct answer is Digitalis. Digitalis is known to cause a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and a short QT interval on an ECG report. These ECG changes are characteristic of digitalis toxicity. Morphine is not typically associated with these ECG changes. Atropine is more commonly linked to increasing heart rate rather than causing these specific ECG abnormalities. Procardia is a calcium channel blocker that does not typically produce the described ECG findings. Therefore, Digitalis is the most likely medication causing these effects in the patient.
3. The goals of palliative care include all of the following except:
- A. giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible.
- B. taking care of the whole person—body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul.
- C. no interventions are needed because the client is near death.
- D. supporting the needs of the family and client.
Correct answer: no interventions are needed because the client is near death.
Rationale: The correct goal of palliative care is to provide comprehensive care that addresses the physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs of the dying client until the end of life. Therefore, the statement 'no interventions are needed because the client is near death' is incorrect as interventions are still essential to ensure comfort and quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are all aligned with the goals of palliative care, focusing on improving the quality of life, providing holistic care, and supporting both the family and the client.
4. What should the nurse do while caring for a client with an eating disorder?
- A. Encourage the client to cook for others
- B. Weigh the client daily and keep a journal
- C. Restrict access to mirrors
- D. Monitor food intake and behavior for one hour after meals
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor food intake and behavior for one hour after meals. This is crucial in caring for a client with an eating disorder as it helps in assessing any immediate risks related to the disorder. Option A is incorrect as it may trigger additional stress for the client and distract from the main focus of managing the disorder. Option B, weighing the client daily, could lead to an unhealthy focus on weight and potentially worsen the client's mental health. Option C, restricting access to mirrors, although it may be beneficial for body image concerns, does not directly address the core issue of monitoring food intake and behavior, which is essential in managing eating disorders.
5. A 14-year-old boy has been admitted to a mental health unit for observation and treatment. The boy becomes agitated and starts yelling at nursing staff members. What should the nurse's first response be?
- A. Create an atmosphere of seclusion for the boy according to procedures.
- B. Remove other patients from the area for added safety.
- C. Ask the patient, “What is making you mad?”
- D. Ask the patient, “Why are you behaving this way? Have you thought about what may help you calm down?”
Correct answer: Create an atmosphere of seclusion for the boy according to procedures.
Rationale: In a situation where a patient is agitated and yelling, the first response should be to create an atmosphere of seclusion for the safety of the patient and others. Seclusion is a standard procedure to help manage aggressive behaviors and prevent harm. Options B, C, and D are not appropriate in this scenario. Removing other patients may not address the immediate safety concern, asking the patient what is making them mad can escalate the situation, and questioning why the patient is behaving that way may not help in managing the current agitation. Therefore, seclusion is the recommended course of action in this scenario to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved.
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