Nursing Elites

1. Which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?

• A. estrogen
• B. progesterone
• C. testosterone
• D. human chorionic gonadotropin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

2. Which type of diet should the nurse provide to help a client who has major burns maintain a positive nitrogen balance?

• A. high protein
• B. high carbohydrate
• C. low carbohydrate
• D. low protein

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with major burns are in a hypermetabolic state, leading to increased protein catabolism. Therefore, a high-protein diet is essential to help them maintain a positive nitrogen balance and support wound healing. High carbohydrate diets do not directly contribute to achieving a positive nitrogen balance, making choice B incorrect. Similarly, low carbohydrate diets are not recommended for clients with major burns as carbohydrates provide essential energy needed for healing. Low protein diets are contraindicated for clients with major burns as they require higher protein intake to support tissue repair and prevent further breakdown.

3. Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?

• A. to measure uterine size
• B. to detect multiple pregnancies
• C. to measure renal size
• D. to detect foreign bodies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.

4. A nurse witnesses a client sign the consent form for surgery with the surgeon. As the surgeon leaves, the client starts to speak and then stops. The nurse asks if the client has further questions, and he says, "I don't want to bother the surgeon."? The nurse should ____.

• A. acknowledge the client's wish not to bother the surgeon and tell the client to let you know if they change their mind
• B. acknowledge the client's wish not to bother the surgeon and answer all of their questions, as appropriate
• C. go get the surgeon to answer all of the client's questions
• D. answer any questions as appropriate as well as have the surgeon come back to answer any questions if needed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize the client's understanding and comfort. While acknowledging the client's wish not to bother the surgeon is important, it is equally crucial to ensure that the client's questions are answered appropriately and thoroughly. Choice A is correct as it respects the client's initial sentiment and offers the client the opportunity to ask questions later if needed. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests answering all questions immediately, without considering the client's feelings. Choice C is incorrect as it bypasses the nurse's role in addressing the client's concerns. Choice D, the correct answer, balances respecting the client's wish and ensuring that all questions are appropriately addressed, even if it involves the surgeon returning.

5. How often should physical restraints be released?

• A. Every 2 hours
• B. Between 1 and 3 hours
• C. Every 30 minutes
• D. At least every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

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