Nursing Elites

1. Which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?

• A. estrogen
• B. progesterone
• C. testosterone
• D. human chorionic gonadotropin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

2. A nurse calls a health care provider to question a prescription written for a higher-than-normal dosage of morphine sulfate. The health care provider changes the prescription to a dosage within the normal range, and the nurse documents the new telephone prescription in accordance with the agency's guidelines in the client's record. Which other statement does the nurse document in the nursing notes?

• A. The health care provider made a mistake in the written prescription for morphine sulfate.
• B. An inaccurate dosage of morphine sulfate was prescribed and the health care provider was informed.
• C. The health care provider was contacted to correct a mistake in the dosage of morphine sulfate.
• D. The health care provider was contacted to clarify the prescription for morphine sulfate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse needs to document a factual, descriptive, and objective statement that does not include words indicating that an individual made a mistake or performed an incorrect action or procedure. If a health care provider's prescription must be questioned, the nurse should record that clarification regarding the prescription was sought. Therefore, the correct statement to document is that the health care provider was contacted to clarify the prescription for morphine sulfate. Choices A, B, and C imply errors or mistakes on the part of the health care provider, which is not the focus of the documentation in this scenario.

3. Which isolation procedure will be followed for secretions and blood?

• A. Respiratory Isolation
• B. Standard Precautions
• C. Contact Isolation
• D. Droplet Isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Standard Precautions. Standard precautions are taken in all situations for all clients and involve all body secretions except sweat. They are designed to reduce the rate of transmission of microbes from one host to another or one source to another. Respiratory Isolation (Choice A) is used for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, not secretions and blood. Contact Isolation (Choice C) is for clients known or suspected to be infected with microorganisms that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact. Droplet Isolation (Choice D) is used for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, talking, or procedures.

4. A nurse is assisting with data collection of a client who has sustained circumferential burns of both legs. What should the nurse examine first?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Peripheral pulses
• C. Blood pressure (BP)
• D. Radial pulse rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for a client with circumferential burns to the legs is to examine peripheral pulses. This is essential to ensure adequate circulation to the extremities. Circumferential burns can lead to compartment syndrome, causing decreased circulation to the affected limbs. Checking peripheral pulses is crucial to monitor for any signs of compromised circulation. While heart rate and blood pressure are important assessments in general, in the context of circumferential burns, the immediate concern is the risk of impaired circulation to the extremities. Therefore, assessing peripheral pulses takes precedence in this situation.

5. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled for a colonoscopy
• B. A client with a tracheostomy who is receiving humidified oxygen via a tracheostomy mask
• C. A client preparing for discharge after surgery
• D. A client requiring a tube feeding through a gastrostomy tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with a tracheostomy who is receiving humidified oxygen via a tracheostomy mask. Airway management is always the priority in nursing care. Assessing this client first ensures that their airway is clear and oxygenation is adequate. Clients with compromised airways need immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress or failure. The other clients do not have immediate airway concerns and represent lower priorities in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client with the tracheostomy and oxygen therapy to maintain airway patency and adequate oxygenation.

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